UPPSC – PCS Prelims 2019 Question Paper With Solution

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पिछले वर्ष के प्रश्नपत्र परीक्षा की तैयारी में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाते हैं। हमने यूपीपीएससी प्रीलिम्स 2019 के पिछले साल के प्रश्न पत्र का समाधान संकलित किया है ये समाधान निश्चित रूप से आप सभी को प्रारंभिक परीक्षा की तैयारी में मदद करेंगे।

1. The newly appointed Managing Director I.M.F. is

(a) Kristalina Georgieva

(b) Christine Lagarde

(d) Surjit Bhalla

Answer: a

Explanation:

International Monetary Fund

• It was conceived in July 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference of United Nations held in New Hampshire, United States.

• Parent organization:- United Nations Organization

• Headquarters:- Washington D.C., United States

• Managing Director:- Kristalina Georgieva

• Chief Economist:- Gita Gopinath (Born in India)

2. The National Programme launched on October 10, 2019 by the Indian Government to encourage talented children to enrich their skills is

(a) LAKSHYA

(b) PRATIBHA

(d) PARIVARIAN

Answer: c

Explanation: Pradhan Mantri Innovative Learning Programme- DHRUV’

• The programme was launched on October 10, 2019 by Union Human Resource Development Minister

• The objective of the Programme is to encourage talented students to realize their full potential and thereby contribute to the society.

• The programme is named after Pole Star which is known as ‘DRHUV Tara’ in Hindi.

• Under the program the students will be selected from two streams i.e. the Science and the Performing Arts (30 from each stream).

• The students will be broadly from class 9 to 12 from all schools.

3. Match List — I with List — II and select the correct answer from (the codes given below the lists:

List—I	List—II
A. Thomas Cook	1. Recipient of Bharat-Bharati Award
B. Greta Thunberg	2. Hong Kong Leader
C. Dr. Lisha Kiran	3. Environmental Activist
D. Carrie Lam	4. British Tour and Travel Company

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 4 2 3 1

(d) 4 3 1 2

Answer: d

Explanation:

A) Thomas Cook - British Tour and Travel company

B) Greta Thunberg -Environmental Activist

C) Dr. UshaKiran- Recipient of Bharat – Bharati Award

D) Carrie Lam- Hong Kong Leader

4. The 2019 Nobel Prize for Economics was given to a woman for the second time. name the first woman who was earlier awarded this prize.

(a) Esther Duflo

(b) Gerty Theresa Cor

(d) Elinar Ostrom

Answer: d

Explanation:

• The first woman who was awarded the Nobel Prize for Economics was Elinar Ostrom in 2009.

• Esther Duflo became the second woman to be awarded the Nobel Prize in economics in the year 2019.

• She was awarded along with her husband Abhijit Banerjee (MIT) and Michael Kremer (Harvard) for their work on poverty.

5. Rural Sanitation Strategy launched by Ministry of Jal Shakti in September 2o19 relates to which of the following periods?

(a) 2019-2035

(b) 2019-2029

(d) 2019-2024

Answer: b

Explanation:

• Rural Sanitation Strategy was launched by The Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation (DDWS), Ministry of Jal Shakti in September 2019.

• It is a 10 Year Rural Sanitation Strategy (2019-2029).

• It focuses on sustaining the sanitation behaviour change that has been achieved under the Swachh Bharat Mission Grameen (SBM-G).

• It also focuses on increasing access to solid and liquid waste management.

6. Central institute of Indian languages is located at of the following places?

(a) Varanasi

(b) Mysore

(d) Shimla

Answer: b

Explanation:

• Central Institute of Indian Languages is located at Mysore.

• Its objectives are-

⇒ It promotes linguistic harmony in the country.

⇒ It protects and documents Minority and Tribal Languages, Minor languages.

⇒ It advises and assists both Centre & States in the matters of language.

⇒ It contributes towards the development of all Indian languages by creating content and corpus.

7. India aims to achieve land degradation neutrality by the year

(a) 2025

(b) 2030

(d) 2040

Answer: b

Explanation:

• A major conference of United nations on combating & fighting desertification was held in New Delhi in Sept. 2019.

• It is known as the UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) under COP-14.

• It adopted a series of measures under the accord, which is also called as the Delhi Declaration.

• Under the accord, India aims to achieve land degradation neutrality by the year 2030 (the Sustainable Development Goal target year).

8. Which Geosynchronous Satellite launch Vehicle was used by ISRO to launch Chandrayaan-2 craft?

(a) GSLV - MK III - M1

(b) GSLV - MK II - M2

(d) GSLV - Mk V - M4

Answer: a

Explanation:

• ISRO launched Chandrayaan-2 on 22 July 2019.

• It was India’s second lunar exploration mission after Chandrayaan-1.

• It was launched from Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota.

• Core Objectives of the mission are:

⇒ To demonstrate the ability of soft landing on lunar surface

⇒ Mapping of the lunar surface

⇒ Abundance of lunar water

• It was launched by the 640-tonne GSLV Mk-III M1 rocket.

• The mission had three components, i.e., an orbiter, a lander and a rover.

• The mission’s lander is named as Vikram and the rover is named as Pragyan.

• However, the lander failed to make soft landing on lunar surface.

9. Which of the following statements about India’s largest Charkha is/are true?

1. IL was inaugurated in Noida.

2. It is made of used plastic waste.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

Explanation:

• India’s largest charkha was inaugurated on the eve of Mahatma Gandhi’s 150th birth anniversary in Noida.

• It is the 1,650-kg spinning wheel, made of used plastic waste.

• It dimensions are measured as 14 ft × 20 ft × 8ft and it is made of 1,250 kg of used plastic.

• It symbolizes Gandhi’s dream of Swadeshi.

10. Which or the following organism has white blood?

(a) Lizard

(b) Cockroach

(d) Mosquito

Answer: b

Explanation:

• Cockroaches are included in class Insecta of Phylum Arthropoda.

• They are black or brown bodied animals.

• Their body structure is made of long antenna, legs and flat extension of the upper body wall that conceals head.

• They have white blood.

11. Nitrogen fixing bacteria make combination with cells of the roots of

(a) Pulses

(b) Rice

(d) Sugarcane

Answer: a

Explanation:

• Atmospheric Nitrogen directly cannot be used by plants. First, it needs to be fixed through certain bacteria.

• This process is known as Nitrogen fixation.

• It is an essential biological process and the initial stage of the nitrogen cycle.

• Certain bacteria like Rhizobium, Azotobacter, etc., helps in fixing atmospheric nitrogen into a usable form.

• Nitrogen-fixing bacteria make a combination with cells of the roots of Pulses, as generally these bacteria are found in the root nodules of leguminous plants.

12. What happens when some charge is placed on a soap bubble?

(a) Its radius increases

(b) Its radius decreases

(d) None of the above

Answer: a

Explanation:

• When some charge is placed on a soap bubble, it will be distributed uniformly on the surface of the bubble.

• The repulsion due to the electrostatic force will make the charge to distribute uniformly.

• It will lead to expansion of the bubble.

• Hence, the radius of the bubble will increase.

• This will happen in case of both positively and negatively charged bubbles.

13. Which of the following pars is NOT correctly matched?

(a) Oxytocin Hormone

(b) Aspartame Synthetic sweetener

(d) Rayon Modified starch

Answer: d

Explanation: Rayon is a man-made fibre made from Cellulose.

14. Which of the following substances is NOT a protein?

(a) Cotton

(b) Hair

(d) Hoof

Answer: a

Explanation:

• Proteins are made of amino acids, arranged into different groups.

• The synthesis of Protein takes place through a process called translation.

• Cytoplasm is the site where the synthesis of protein takes place.

• They are used to build and repair tissues in the body.

• Examples of protein are- Hair, Spider silk, Hoof, etc.

• Cotton is almost pure cellulose.

15. A liquid remains hot or cold for a long time in thermos flask because there is no loss or gain of heat by

(a) Conduction

(b) Convection and radiation

(d) None of the above

Answer: c

Explanation:

• If there is no loss of heat by any of the three processes, namely conduction, convection or radiation, the liquid will remain in the same degree of hotness or coldness.

• In other words, a liquid remains hot or cold for a long time in thermos flask because there is no loss or gain of heat by the processes of:

⇒ Conduction

⇒ Convection

⇒ Radiation

16. Which of the following glands in human body both as a endocrine gland as well as an exocrine gland?

(a) Adrenal gland

(b) Lacrimal gland

(d) Thyroid

Answer: c

Explanation:

• The pancreas in the human body is a gland organ.

• It is located in the abdomen of the body.

• It is part of the human digestive system.

• It acts both as an endocrine gland as well as exocrine gland.

• As an endocrine gland, it releases juice directly into our bloodstream, and as an exocrine gland, it releases juices into ducts.

• Pancreas juices are secreted by the pancreas into the small intestine which helps in breaking down food in our stomach.

• It also produces insulin which helps in regulating body’s glucose level.

17. Which one of the following materials contains calcium?

(a) China clay

(b) Corundum

(d) Talc

Answer: c

Explanation:

• China clay- Chemical formula- Al2O3.2SiO2.2H2O

• Corundum- Chemical Name- Aluminum Oxide, Chemical formula- Al2O3

• Gypsum- Chemical Name- Hydrated Calcium Sulphate, Chemical formula- CaSO4.2H2O

• Talc- Chemical Name- Hydrated Magnesium Silicate, Chemical formula- Mg3Si4O10(OH)2

18. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?

(Substance)	(Use)
(a) Silver bromide	artificial photosynthesis
(b) silver iodide	artificial rain
(c) Lithium bicarbonate	treatment of rheumatism
(d) Milk of magnesia	antacid

Answer: a

Explanation: Silver bromide is used in Photography.

19. Tulsi plant has medicinal values due to the presence of the following

(a) Inorganic Acid

(b) Organic Acid

(d) None of the above

Answer: c

Explanation: • Tulsi (Basil) has been used for thousands of years in Ayurveda for its medicinal properties.

• The plant has medicinal values due to the presence of the Phenols and Flavonoids.

• It is useful in case of headaches, respiratory diseases, stress, kidney stone, indigestion, diabetes.

20. What is true about ecosystem?

(a) Primary Consumers are least dependent Upon Producer

(b) Primary Consumers are out-number producers

(d) Secondary Consumers are the largest and most powerful

Answer: c

Explanation: True statements about ecosystem are:

• Primary consumers are totally dependent upon producers.

• Primary consumers are less than producers.

• Producers are more than primary consumers.

• Secondary consumers are not the largest and most powerful.

• Animals on the top of the pyramids are the largest and most powerful.

21. With reference to Eutrophication, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a phenomenon of nutrient enrichment of a water body.

2. It depletes dissolved oxygen of the water.

Codes:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

Explanation: Correct statements about Eutrophication

• It is a phenomenon of nutrient enrichment of a water body.

• It depletes dissolved oxygen of the water.

22. The environment modified by human activities is called

(a) Natural environment

(b) Anthropogenic environment

(d) Modem environment

Answer: b

Explanation: Anthropogenic environment

• Anthropogenic activities are man-made activities which are different from natural activities.

• These activities include communication, transportation, industrialization & other similar activities.

• All such activities modify & affect natural environment.

• The environment modified by human activities is called anthropogenic environment.

23. Which of the following statement is NOT true?

(a) Species diversity increases from equator towards poles.

(b) Tropics harbour more species than temperate areas.

(d) Species diversity decreases from temperate areas towards poles.

Answer: a

Explanation: True statements are:

• Species diversity decreases from equator toward poles.

• Tropics harbour more species than temperate areas.

• Greatest biodiversity occurs in Amazon rain forest.

• Species diversity decreases from temperate areas towards poles.

24. Which one of the following is the well known example of bio indicator of air pollution?

(a) Lichens

(b) Methyl mercury

(d) Sunflower

Answer: a

Explanation: • Lichen is a symbiotic relationship between a fungi and a cyanobacterium or algae.

• Algae contain chlorophyll which is used in photosynthesis (food).

• Fungi provide shelter, water and minerals to the algae.

• Beauty of some historical monuments is greatly affected by the growth of lichen.

• It is the well known example of bio indicator of air pollution.

• Air pollution can cause the death of the algae in the lichen.

• It can also lead to discoloration and reduced growth of the fungus in the lichen.

• It can completely kill the lichen.

25. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

(a) Desalination Sea water

(b) Reverse osmosis Potable water

(d) Pasteurisation Tea

Answer: d

Explanation: Pasteurisation prevents Milk from getting sour.

26. Which of the following is an example of herbicide?

(a) Sodium chlorate

(b) Potassium permanganate

(d) None of the above

Answer: a

Explanation: • Sodium chlorate- It is a powerful oxidising agent. Its chemical formula is NaClO3. It is used as an Herbicide.

• Potassium permanganate- It is an inorganic chemical compound. It is also called as Condy’s crystals. Its chemical formula is KMnO4. It is used in well water treatment.

• Bleaching powder-It is called as Calcium Oxychloride. Its chemical formula is CaOCl2 .It is used as disinfectant and germicide especially for the sterilization of drinking water.

27. The gas, which is emitted in the paddy fields and increases the earth’s temperature is

(a) Nitrogen

(b) Carbon dioxide

(d) Methane

Answer: d

Explanation: • Methane is the simplest member of the paraffin series of hydrocarbons.

• Its chemical formula is CH4.

• It is a colourless odourless gas.

• It occurs abundantly in nature.

• It is also produced as a product of certain human activities.

• It is emitted in the paddy fields and increases the earth’s temperature since it is one of the most potent greenhouse gas.

28. At which of the following places is the Secretariat of the International Solar Alliance (I.S.A.) located at present?

(a) Paris

(b) New Delhi

(d) New York

Answer: c

Explanation: International Solar Alliance (I.S.A.)

• The International Solar Alliance (ISA) is an initiative proposed by India & France at UN Climate Change Conference held in Paris in 2015.

• The alliance is aimed at capturing solar energy & utilising it.

• The Secretariat of the International Solar Alliance (I.S.A.) located at Gurugram, India.

29. The First Union Territory India to run 100 percent on solar energy is

(a) Andaman-Nicobar

(b) Chandigarh

(d) Puducherry

Answer: c

Explanation:

• Diu became the first Union Territory of India to run 100 percent on solar energy.

• It is also the only UT of the country to completely run on solar power.

• The UT has set-up solar power plants to meet its solar power demand.

30. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other's Reason (R)

Assertion (A): There is a positive relation between Human Development Index (HDI) and Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) ranking of Indian State.

Reason (R): The underlying dimension of SDC targets are closely related to education and health aspect.

Select the Correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: a

Explanation:

• Assertion (A) is correct as more the value of the HDI of a country, greater it achieves its SDG target & vice-versa.

• Reason (R) is also correct as better education and health aspect, leads to more achievement of SDG targets by a nation.

• Here (R) is also the correct explanation of (A).

31. Multidimensional poverty index includes:

i. Health

ii. Education

iii. Living Standard

Select correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) only i is correct

(b) only ii and iii are correct

(d) i, ii and iii are correct

Answer: d

Explanation:

Multidimensional poverty index includes following parameters:

• Health

• Education

• Living Standard

32. Arrange the following events in chronological order of their commencement and select correct answer from the codes given below:

I. Wild Life (Protection) Act

II. Biological Diversity Act

III. Project Tiger

IV. Project Elephant

Codes:

(a) I, II, III, IV

(b) I, III, IV, II

(d) II, III, I, IV

Answer: b

Explanation: The chronological order of their commencement of the following events is-

I. Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972

III. Project Tiger, 1973

IV. Project Elephant, 1992

II. Biological Diversity Act, 2002

33. Under the Civil Registration System (CRS). It is legally mandatory to register birth and death events within how many days in India?

(a) 15 days

(b) 21 days

(d) 30 days

Answer: b

Explanation: • Civil registration System is a system under the Office of Registrar General, India (ORGI).

• It registers births and deaths the whole country.

• Under the Civil Registration System (CRS), it is legally mandatory to register birth and death events within 21 days in India.

34. National Family, Health Survey (NFHS — 5 does not include

(a) High blood-pressure

(b) Diabetes

(d) Registration of death

Answer: c

Explanation: National Family Health Survey (NFHS) – 5 include-

⇒ High blood pressure

⇒ Diabetes

⇒ Registration of death

• The survey does not include HIV Test.

35. The Environmental Kuznets Curve (EKC) shows the relationship between per capita GDP and environmental loss. What is the shape of Environmental Kuznets Curve?

(a) Inverted 'U’ shaped

(b) inverted 'V’ shaped

(d) None of these

Answer: a

Explanation: Environmental Kuznets Curve (EKC)

• The Environmental Kuznets Curve (EKC) is a hypothetical relationship between economic development and environmental quality.

• The curve shows the relationship between per capita GDP and environmental loss.

• The shape of Environmental Kuznets Curve is inverted ‘U’ shaped.

36. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Sustainable development is important for well being of human society.

Reason (R): Sustainable development is kind of development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: a

Explanation: • Assertion (A) is correct as the basic objective of Sustainable development is the well being of human society.

• Reason (R) is the correct definition of Sustainable development.

• Here (R) is also the correct explanation of (A).

37. Which of the following Direct Benefit Scheme (DBS) has been recognized by the Guinness Book of World Record’ as the world’s largest Direct Benefit Scheme?

(a) MGNREGA

(b) PAIIAL

(d) None of the above

Answer: b

Explanation:

Pratyaksh Hanstantrit Labh (PaHaL) scheme

• The scheme was formally launched by Union Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas in 2013 as Direct Benefit Transfer Scheme for LPG subsidy.

• Later was modified in November 2014 and named as PaHal.

• Initially it was launched in 54 districts of India.

• Later the scheme was extended on 1 January 2015 on nationwide basis.

• The scheme is mainly aimed at providing subsidized LPG cylinders at market rates and consumers are entitled to receive LPG subsidy direct into their bank account.

• The scheme has been recognized as the world’s largest Direct Benefit Scheme by the Guinness Book of World Records.

38. With reference to the National Food Security Act, which of the following statement is/are correct?

I. It will cover up to 75 percent rural and 50 percent urban population.

II. Special focus on nutritional support to women and children.

III. Eldest woman of above 18 years age will be head of house hold.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below;

(a) I and II are correct

(b) II and III are correct

(d) None of these

Answer: c

Explanation: Correct statements about National Food Security Act are

• It will cover upto 75 percent rural and 50 percent urban population

• Special focus one nutritional support to women and children.

• Eldest woman of above 18 years age will be head of house hold.

39. With reference to the measures of Tenancy Reform in India. Which of the statements is/are correct?

1. Regulation of rent

2. Security of tenure

3. Continent of ownership on tenants

Select the correct answer using codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: d

Explanation: With reference to the measures of Tenancy Reform in India, the correct statement are-

• Regulation of rent

• Security of tenure

• Conferment of ownership on tenants

40. with reference to the functions or Public Sector in India. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. To provide public utility resources

II. To build social and economic overhead capital

III. To ensure balanced regional and sectoral growth

IV. To pursue egalitarian goals

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) I, II and III are correct

(b) II, III and IV are correct

(d) I, III and IV are correct

Answer: c

Explanation: With reference to the functions of Public Sector in India, the correct statement are-

• To provide public utility resources

• To build social and economic overhead capital

• To ensure balanced regional and sectoral growth

• To pursue egalitarian goals

41. In the Suez Canal region, the correct order of lakes lying from North to South direction is

(a) Lake Timsah — Little Bitter lake — Great Bitter Lake — Lake Manzala

(b) Great Bitter Lake — Little Bitter Lake - Lake Timsah — Lake Manzala

(d) Lake Manzala — Lake Timsah - Great Bitter Lake - Little Bitter Lake

Answer: d

Explanation: In the Suez canal region, the correct order of lakes laying from North to South direction is-

• Lake Manzal

• Lake Timsah

• Great Bitter Lake

• Little Bitter Lake

42. Telegraphic Plateau is a part of

(a) North Atlantic Ridge

(b) South Atlantic Ridge

(d) None of these

Answer: a

Explanation: The Telegraph Plateau is a region of the North Atlantic that was supposedly relatively flat and shallow compared to the rest of the ocean away from shore. The term is archaic and no longer used by hydrographers.

43. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I (Different name of tropical cyclone)	List-II (Country)
A. Willy-willies	1. Philippines
B. Taifu	2. Australia
C. Baguio	3. Japan
D. Hurricanes	4. U.S.A.

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 3 4 1 2

(b) 2 3 4 1

(d) 2 3 1 4

Answer: d

Explanation: A) Willy – Willies Australia

B) Taifu Japan

C) Baguio Philippines

D) Hurricanes U.S.A

44. Which one of the following cities is NOT located on the Trans-Siberian rail route?

(a) Kazan

(b) Omsk

(d) Chita

Answer: c

Explanation: Trans- Siberian rail

• The Trans- Siberian rail route runs from Moscow to Vladivostok.

• It was built between 1891 and 1916.

• The cities located on the Trans- Siberian rail route from the given options are- Kazan, Omsk & Chita.

• It doesn’t pass through Sochi.

45. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

(Wind) (Country)

(a) Santa Ana California

(b) Haboob Sudan

(d) Mistral Australia

Answer: d

Explanation: A) Santa Ana California

B) Haboob Sudan

C) Yamo Japan

D) Mistral France

46. Match List - I with List — II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists?

List-I (Coal Fields)	List-II (Located)
A. Talchir	1. Damodar valley
B. Karnapura	2. Son valley
C. singroli	3. Godavar valley
D. Sinyreni	4. Mahanadi valley

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 4 1 2 3

(b) 3 2 1 4

(d) 1 3 2 4

Answer: a

Explanation: A) Talchir - Mahanadi Valley

B) Karnapura - Damodar Valley

C) Singroli - Son Valley

D) Singreni - Godavari Valley

47. Which one of the following peaks is NOT located in India?

(a) Gurla Mandhata

(b) Namcha Barwa

(d) Nanga Parbat

Answer: a

Explanation: Location of the given peaks:

• Gurla Mandhata-Tibet

• Namcha barwa-Arunachal Pradesh

• Kamet-Uttarakhand

• Nanga Parbat- Diamer District of Gilgit Baltistan region

48. The winter rains caused by western disturbance in North Western Plain of India gradually decrease from

(a) East to West

(b) West o East

(d) South to North

Answer: b

Explanation: • Some weak temperate cyclones from the Mediterranean sea cause winter rainfall North Western Plain of India.

• The amount of rainfall is less but it is highly beneficial for rabi crops.

• This winter rains caused by Western disturbance gradually decreases from West to East.

• The average winter rainfall in Delhi is around 53 mm which decreases in Punjab and Bihar, between 25 mm and 18 mm respectively.

49. In which of the following rivers, the upper course Contains fresh water but saline water flowing at the lower part?

(a) Barak river

(b) Luni river

(d) None of the above

Answer: b

Explanation: • Luni river originates from western slopes of Aravalli range, from Ajmer district of Rajasthan.

• The basin of the river covers parts of Ajmer, Pali, Jodhpur, Barmer & Jalore districts.

• It eventually discharges into Rann of kutch, Gujarat.

• The upper course contains fresh water but saline water flowing at the lower part.

50. ‘Moribund Delta’ is a subdivision of which of the following Delta?

(a) Krishna-Godawari Delta

(b) Mahanadi Delta

(d) Cauvery Delta

Answer: c

Explanation: • The Bengal Delta can be subdivided into immature, mature, moribund and active deltas.

• Hence, ‘Moribund Delta’ is a subdivision of Bengal Delta.

51. Given below are two statements one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Sugarcane and sugar production in U.P. is more than Maharashtra but productivity is less.

Reason (R): Most of the sugar factories in Maharashtra are in cooperative sector.

Codes:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the Correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: b

Explanation: • Assertion (A) is correct as sugarcane productivity in U.P. is less than Maharashtra; however, its production is more.

• Reason (R) is correct as Maharashtra has predominance of cooperative sector in sugar production.

However, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

52. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

(a) Dam Copper coin

(b) Desai Revenue Collector

(d) Jarib A type of tax

Answer: d

Explanation: Correctly matched pairs from the given options are

A) Dam Copper coin

B) Desai Revenue Collector

C) Diwan Revenue Chief of a Province

D) Jarib is a traditional unit of land measurement.

53. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the Codes given below:

List-I	List-II
A. Mulla Daud	1. Chandayan
B. Damodar Kavi	2. Ashiqa
C. Somnath	3. Padmavati Katha
D. Amir Khusro	4. Rag Vibodh

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 3 2 4

(b) 1 3 4 2

(d) 1 2 3 4

Answer: d

Explanation: A) MullaDaud - Chandayan

B) Damodar Kavi - Padmavati Katha

C) Somnath - Rag Vibodh

D) Amir Khusro - Ashiqa

54. Who among the following kings had given patronage to Tansen before Akbar?

(a) Raja Ramchandra Singh of Bhata

(b) Rajbahadur of Malwa

(d) Muzaffar Shah of Gujarat

Answer: a

Explanation: • The original name of Tansen was Ramtanu Pande.

• He was the legendary musician & among ‘Navratna’ in Akbar’s court.

• The name Tansen was later given by King Akbar.

• The music school of Raja Mansingh Tomar provided him early training of music.

• Raja Ramchandra Singh of Bhata had given patronage to Tansen before Akbar.

55. Match List - I with List — II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:

List-I (Ruling Dynasties)	List-II (Capitals)
A. Pallava	1. Warangal
B. Pandya	2. Kanchi
C. Yadava	3. Madura
D. Kaktiya	4. Devagiri

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 2 1 4 3

(b) 2 3 4 1

(d) 2 4 3 1

Answer: b

Explanation: A) Pallava - Kanchi

B) Pandya - Madurai

C) Yadava - Devagiri

D) Kakatiya - Warangal

56. Arrange the following monuments in a chronological order and Select the correct answer from the Codes given below:

I. Rubia Daurani's Tomb, Aurangabad

II. Shershah Suri's Tomb, Sasaram

III. Humayun's Tomb, Delhi

IV. Atala Mosque, Jaunpur

Code:

(a) I, II, IV, III

(b) Iv, II, III, I

(d) III, IV, II, I

Answer: b

Explanation: The chronological order of the given monuments is-

IV. Atala Mosque, Jaunpur (1408)

II. Shershah Suri’s Tomb, Sasaram (Completed 1545)

III. Humayun’s Tomb, Delhi (1570)

I. Rabia Daurani’s Tomb, Aurangabad (1678)

57. With reference to Mansabdari system, which of the statements is/are correct?

1. Mansabdari system was the official nobility of the state, started by Akbar.

2. A Mansabdari was hereditary.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) 1 Only

(b) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: a

Explanation: • Mansabdari System was introduced for military administration and territorial commands.

• It was started by Akbar.

• Mansabdari system was the official nobility of the state.

• Under this system the Mughal officers were granted territorial commands in return for the military service provided by them.

• The Mansabdars had to bring in fixed number of armed man, horses and elephants.

• Raja Mansingh became the first Mansabdar of 7000 Jats under this system.

• Mansabdari was not hereditary.

58. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:

List-I	List-II
A. Treaty of Allahabad	1. 1782
B. Treaty of Manglore	2. 1784
C. Treaty of Salbai	3. 1769
D. Treaty of Madras	4. 1765

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 4 2 3 1

(b) 2 4 3 1

(d) 2 4 1 3

Answer: c

Explanation: A) Treaty of Allahabad - 1765

B) Treaty of Manglore - 1784

C) Treaty of Salbai - 1782

D) Treaty of Madras - 1769

59. Arrange the following events in a chronological order and select correct answer from the codes given below:

I. Poona Pact

II. Gandhi-Irvin Agreerment

III. Cripps Mission

IV. Civil Disobedience Movement

Codes:

(a) IV, II, III, I

(b) II, IV, I, III

(d) III, I, IV, II

Answer: c

Explanation: The chronological order of the given events is-

IV. Civil Disobedience Movement, 1930

II. Gandhi – Irwin Agreement, 1931

I. Poona Pact, 1932

III. Cripps Mission, 1942

60. With reference to the Civil Administration in 1905, which of the statements which of the statements is/are correct?

1. Lord Curzon decided to rearrange the provincial boundaries.

2. A new province was constituted, called East Bengal and Assam.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: b

Explanation: Correct statements With reference to the Civil Administration in 1905 are-

• Lord Curzon decided to rearrange the provincial boundaries.

• A new province was constituted, called East Bengal and Assam.

61. Who prepared "C.R. Formula" to remove the political deadlock between Muslim League and Indian National Congress?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Rajgopalachari

(d) V. P. Menon

Answer: b

Explanation: • In 1944 the veteran Congress leader C. Rajagopalachari prepared a formula for Congress-League cooperation to solve the ongoing constitutional crisis.

• The main points in the formula were:

⇒ The Congress demand for independence to endorse by Muslim League.

⇒ In forming a provisional government at centre, League to cooperate with congress.

⇒ A plebiscite should be held in the entire population of Muslim majority areas in the North-East & North-West India to decide, whether or not to form separate sovereign state after the end of the war.

⇒ An agreement for safeguarding communications, defence, commerce etc should be made if partition is agreed.

⇒ The above said terms are to operate only if England transferred full powers to India.

62. 'The Rise and Growth of Economic Nationalism in India’ was written by

(a) Partha Sarthi Gupta

(b) S. Gopal

(d) Bipin Chandra

Answer: d

Explanation: Important books written by Bipin Chandra

• ‘The Rise and Growth of Economic Nationalism in India’

• India’s struggle for independence

• India since independence

• India after independence

• In the name of democracy

63. In which of the following the provisions for the protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding or forests and wildlife' are found in the Constitution of India?

(a) Only in the Directive Principles of State Policy

(b) Only in the Fundamental Duties

(d) None of the above

Answer: c

Explanation: Provisions for the protection and improvement of environment in Indian constitution

• Article 48A- To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife (It was added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 under the Directive Principles of State Policy)

• Article 51 A- Protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to have compassion for living creatures (It was added by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 under the Directive Principles of State Policy)

• Hence, ‘the provisions for the protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife’ are found in both the Directive Principles of State Policy & the Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India.

64. With reference to Panchayats which of the statements is/are correct?

1. Fifty percent seats shall be reserved for the women of SC/ST categories.

2. Gram Sabha is a body consisting of all person living in the village.

3. There will be a Panchayat at intermediate level.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer: d

Explanation: Correct statements about Panchayats are

• One third of the Seats and One third offices of the Chairperson at all level of Panchayati Raj Institutions shall be reserved for women.

• Gram Sabha is the body consisting of all the persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village comprised within the area of Panchayat at the village level.

• There will be a Panchayat at intermediate level.

65. Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS), a Social Movement has been associated with which of the following in India?

(a) RTE Act

(b) RTI Act

(d) National Health Mission (NHM)

Answer: b

Explanation: • Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS), a Social Movement was started in Rajasthan.

• The movement finally paved way for Right to Information Act, 2005.

• The act is aimed to empower the citizens about their right to information.

• It also seeks to promote transparency and accountability in the working of the Public Authorities.

66. National Social Assistance programme does not include the following scheme for 'Below Poverty Line' households

(a) National Family Benefit Scheme

(b) Annapurna

(d) All of the above

Answer: c

Explanation: National Social Assistance Programme includes the following five scheme for ‘Below Poverty Line’ households

• Annapurna

• Indira Gandhi National Widow Pension Scheme

• National Family Benefit Scheme

• Indira Gandhi National Old Age Pension Scheme

• Indira Gandhi National Disability Pension Scheme

67. Who said India is a Quasi-Federal state?

(a) Lord Bryce

(b) Ivor Jannigs

(d) K. C. wheare

Answer: d

Explanation: • K.C. Wheare is a well-known British political analyst.

• His famous book is Federal Government.

• He defined federalism in this book as “the method of dividing powers so that the general and regional governments are each within a sphere coordinate and independent”.

• He also said ‘India is a Quasi-Federal State’.

68. Arrange the following events in a chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

I. Maharaja Hari Singh signed the Instrument of Accession.

II. Constitution of India was enforced.

III. Accession to India ratified by the Sovereign Constituent Assembly or Jammu and Kashmir.

IV. New Constitution of the State of Jammu and Kashmir came into force.

Codes:

(a) I, III, IV, II

(b) III, IV, I, II

(d) IV, III II, I

Answer: c

Explanation: The chronological order of the given events is-

I. Maharaja Hari Singh signed the Instrument of Accession.

II. Constitution of India was enforced.

III. Accession to India ratified by the Sovereign Constituent Assembly of Jammu and Kashmir.

IV. New Constitution of the State of Jammu and Kashmir came into force.

69. Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion

(a) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion

(a): The Supreme Court of India has exclusive jurisdiction regarding Constitutional validity of Central laws.

Reason (R): The Supreme Court is the Guardian of the Indian Constitution

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Both (a) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (a)

(b) Both (a) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (a)

(d) (a) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: d

Explanation: • Assertion (A) is incorrect as both High Courts and the Supreme Court have the power to adjudicate cases against the Central laws.

• Reason (R) correctly states the responsibility of the Supreme Court of India.

• Hence, (A) is false, but (R) is true is the correct answer.

70. National Panchayati Raj Day in India is celebrated on

(a) 26 January

(b) 2 October

(d) 24 April

Answer: d

Explanation: • The National Panchayati Raj Day is celebrated in India on 24th April every year.

• The National Panchayati Raj Day is celebrated on 24th April as 73rd constitutional amendment act, 1992 came into force from 24 April 1993.

• The day is observed since 24 April 2010 in the country.

71. Which of the following Article was inserted by the 42nd Constitution Amendment to provide for participation of workers in management?

(a) Article 38

(b) Article 39A

(d) Article 43A

Answer: d

Explanation: The Directive Principles of State Policy- added four new directive principles vide 42nd Constitution Amendment which are-

⇒ To secure opportunities for the healthy development of children (Article 39)

⇒ To provide equal Justice & free legal aid to the poor (Article 39A)

⇒ To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries (Article 43A)

⇒ To protect & improve the environment & to safeguard forests & wildlife (Article 48A)

72. What is the legal nature of the Preamble of the Constitution?

(a) It is enforceable

(b) It is not enforceable

(d) None of the above

Answer: b

Explanation: • The Preamble of the Indian constitution can be said as the preface or introduction to the constitution.

• It is the essence of our constitution.

• It is based on the Objective Resolution of Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru.

• Three new words, i.e., Socialist, Secular and Integrity, were added in the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976.

• The legal nature of the Preamble of the Constitution is that it is not enforceable by law.

73. Which of the following is correct about the heading of the Article 162 of the Constitution of India?

(a) Executive Power of State

(b) Conditions of Governors office

(d) Extension or Executive Power of State

Answer: d

Explanation: Article 162 of Constitution of India

• The article deals with the Executive Power of State

• The article says that the executive power of a State shall extend to the matters with respect to which the Legislature of a State has power to make laws.

74. Which of the following temples is also known as Khajuraho of Vidarbha?

(a) Markandeshwar

(b) Kailash

(d) Bhimashankar

Answer: a

Explanation: Markandeshwar temple

• The temple is located in the Gadchiroli district of Maharashtra.

• It is situated on the bank of the river Wainganga.

• The temple is constructed in the Nagara style of temple construction of north India.

• It is also known as ‘Khajuraho of Vidarbha’.

75. Match List — I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I (Typhoon/Hurricane August-September 2019)	List-II (Most affected country)
A. Dorian	1. Bahamas
B. Hagibis	2. China
C. Lekima	3. Jeju, South Korea
D. Mitag	4. Japan

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 4 3

(b) 1 4 2 3

(d) 3 4 2 1

Answer: b

Explanation: A) Dorian - Bahamas

B) Hagibis - Japan

C) Lekima - China

D) Mitag - Jeju, South Korea

76. In October, 2019 India announced to establish a High commission in which African country?

(a) Renin

(b) Gambia

(d) Sierra Leone

Answer: d

Explanation: • In October, 2019 India announced to establish a High Commission in Sierra Leone of Africa.

• Both the countries have also agreed to enhance cooperation in-

⇒ Food processing

⇒ Information Technology

⇒ Infrastructure development

⇒ Agriculture

⇒ Capacity building

77. According to NITI Aayog which of the following sates is at the top in the India Innovation Index 2019?

(a) Tamil Nadu

(b) Maharashtra

(d) Karnataka

Answer: d

Explanation:
• National Institute for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) was created on January 1, 2015 by an executive resolution of government of India.

• It is neither a statutory body nor a constitutional body.

• It replaced Planning Commission of India.

• According to NITI Aayog Karnataka is at the top in the India Innovation Index 2019.

• Tamil Nadu & Maharashtra secured 2nd & 3rd rank in the index.

78. 'The author of the Booker Prize Winner 2019 book's “Girl, Women, Other” is

(a) Margaret Atwood

(b) Elif shafak

(d) Bernadine Evaristo

Answer: d

Explanation: • The booker prize for 2019 has jointly awarded to Margaret Atwood and Bernardine Evaristo.

• The novel 'The Handmaid's Tale' won the award written by Margaret Atwood.

• The novel “Girl, Woman, Other” won the award jointly, which is written by Bernardine Evaristo.

• At the age of 79, Margaret Atwood has become the oldest author to win the Booker Prize.

• She is also the second women author to win the Booker Award twice.

79. Whom did P.V. Sindhu beat to win the first ever Gold Medal for lndia in women's Single Badminton Championship in the final match?

(a) Carolina Marin

(b) Tai Tzu Ying

(d) None of these

Answer: c

Explanation: • P.V. Sindhu won the first ever Gold Medal for India in Women’s Single Badminton Championship.

• She beat Nozomi Okuhara of Japan in the final match.

• She won the final match by 21-7, 21-7.

80. Which hydropower plant in Bhutan was inaugurated recently by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi?

(a) Chhukha Power Plant

(b) Dagachhu Power Plent

(d) Mangdechhu Power Plant

Answer: d

Explanation: • Mangdechhu hydropower plant was inaugurated recently by Indian Prime Minister NarendraModi in Bhutan.

• The project costs Rs 4,500-crore.

• It is the part of Bhutan-India friendship project.

• The 720MW power plant is the run-of-river power project built on the Mangdechhu River.

81. The book ‘Venushilpa’ by Chitracharya Upendra Maharathi relates to which of the following form of arts?

(a) Jewellery

(b) Painting

(d) Marble Carvine

Answer: c

Explanation: • The book ‘Venushilpa’ is written by Chitracharya Upendra Maharathi.

• Upendra Maharathi was born in Odisha.

• The book relates to Bamboo art.

82. Which among the following was the first JO0 percent organic state in the world?

(a) Queensland (Australia)

(b) California (United States of America)

(d) Quebec (Canada)

Answer: c

Explanation: • Sikkim (India) became the first 100 percent organic state in the world.

• The state also won Food and Agriculture Organization’s prestigious Future Policy Gold Award.

• Sikkim was also the first state in India to adopt organic farming officially in 2003.

83. Para athlete Deepa Malik, Who has been awarded Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2O19, belongs to the sport

(a) Badminton

(b) Discus throw

(d) Weight lifting

Answer: c

Explanation: Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award

• The award is given to recognize the spectacular and most outstanding performance of a sportsperson over a period of four years at the international level.

• The Selection Committee will be constituted under a chairperson to be nominated by the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports.

• A cash amount of Rs. 7.5 lakh and one medal to each sportsperson are given under the award.

• Para-athlete Deepa Malik, who has has been awarded Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award 2019, belongs to shot put.

84. United Nation Climate Action Summit 2019 was held at which of the following cities?

(a) Paris

(b) Geneva

(d) New York

Answer: d

Explanation: • United Nations Climate Action Summit 2019 was held at New York on 23 September 2019.

• The theme of the summit was, "Climate Action Summit 2019: A Race We Can Win. A Race We Must Win.

• The goal of the summit was to prevent the mean global temperature from rising by more than 1.5 °C above pre industrial levels.

85. Use of polished rice in human diet causes the following disease

(a) Beriberi

(b) Goitre

(d) Colour blindness

Answer: a

Explanation: • Beriberi is a nutritional deficiency disease.

• It is also called as thiamine deficiency.

• It is caused by a vitamin B-1 deficiency.

• Use of polished rice in human diet causes Beriberi.

86. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

(Vitamin) (Rich Source)

(a) vitamin B6 Rice bran

(b) vitamin B2 Cod-liver oil

(d) vitanin K Alfalfa

Answer: b

Explanation: Correctly matched pairs are:

A) Vitamin B6: Rice bran

B) Vitamin B2 : Milk

C) Vitamin E : Wheat germ oil

D) Vitamin K : Alfalfa

87. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Most of the vitamins are not synthesised in human body.

Reason (R): Human organs synthesise only essential micronutrients.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Both (a) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (a)

(b) Both (a) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (a)

(d) (a) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: c

Explanation: • Assertion (A) is correct as most of the vitamins are not synthesised in human body, hence human body need a steady supply of these vitamins through diet.

• Reason (R) is incorrect as humans must obtain essential micronutrients from food since our body cannot synthesise them.

• Hence, (A) is true, but (R) is false.

88. Match List - I with List — II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:

List-I	List-II
A. Kevlar	1. Explosive
B. Taxol	2. Synthetic Fibre
C. Zinc Phosphide	3. Anticancer drug
D. Nitrocellulose	4. Rodenticide

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 2 4 3 1

(b) 2 3 4 1

(d) 3 1 2 4

Answer: b

Explanation: A) Kevlar - Synthetic fibre

B) Taxol - Anticancer Drug

C) Zinc Phosphide - Rodenticide

D) Nitrocellulose - Explosive

89. A sample of any of the following substances disappears after sometime when exposed to air like camphor, naphthalene or dry ice. This phenomenon is called

(a) Sublimation

(b) Evaporation

(d) Radiation

Answer: a

Explanation: • Sublimation is the process of conversion of state of matter.

• It is the process through which a solid is directly converted into gas, without going through liquid state.

• A sample of camphor, naphthalene or dry ice disappears after sometime when exposed to air. This phenomenon is called Sublimation.

90. The phenomenon used in optical fiber for transmission of light energy is

(a) Total internal reflection

(b) Diffraction

(d) Refraction

Answer: a

Explanation: Total internal reflection

• Essential conditions for total internal reflection:

⇒ The light ray must move from a denser medium to lighter medium.

⇒ Critical angle must be shorter than the angle of incidence

• The phenomenon used in optical fibre for transmission of light energy is Total internal reflection.

91. Which of the following statements about enzymes is/are correct?

1. They are biocatalysts.

2. They perform their action on the site where they are produced.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) l only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

Explanation: A catalyst is a substance that can be added to a reaction to increase the reaction rate without getting consumed in the process.

• They are biocatalysts.

• Catalysts typically speed up a reaction by reducing the activation energy or changing the reaction mechanism.

• Common types of catalysts include enzymes, acid-base catalysts, and heterogeneous (or surface) catalysts.

92. Mother's milk provides almost complete diet to the new-born, but it lacks the following

(a) Iron

(b) Calcium

(d) Potassium

Answer: a

Explanation: • Mother’s milk provides almost complete diet to the new-born child.

• It is produced by mammary glands located in the breast of a mother.

• However it lacks Iron.

93. Arrange the following substances in chronological order of their first synthesis in lab:

1. Black gold

2. Fullerene

3. Graphene

4. Kevlar

Select correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 4 2 3 1

(d) 4 1 2 3

Answer:

Explanation: The correct chronological order of the given substances synthesized in the lab is-

• Kevlar (1964)

• Fullerene (1985)

• Graphene (2004)

• Black gold (2019)

94. Bibliometry is

(a) Function of Library Network

(b) Information Management Service

(d) Library Service

Answer: c

Explanation: • The use of statistical methods to analyse bibliographic data of published literature such as books, articles and other publications is called Bibliometry.

• This method is called as Bibliometric methods.

• Hence, Bibliometry is an Information Management Tool.

• Library and information science are the fields where the Bibliometric methods are used.

95. Which one of the following is associated with 'Albedo'?

(a) Transmitting power

(b) Absorbing power

(d) Reflecting power

Answer: d

Explanation: • Albedo is the measure of the reflectivity of a surface or object.

• It is associated with the reflecting power of a surface.

• Incoming solar radiation (Insolation) is scattered, reflected or absorbed by the atmosphere & the surface of the earth.

• The total reflected radiation is called the albedo of the earth.

• It plays a major role in the maintain heat budget of the earth.

• Albedo is high for fresh snow.

96. With reference to the Deep carbon Observatory (DCO) which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is Global Research Programme to outreach role of carbon on earth.

2. It conducts field observations of deep microbial ecosystem.

Select the Correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) l only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

Explanation: Correct statements about the Deep Carbon Observatory (DCO) are-

• It is Global Research Programme to outreach role of carbon on earth.

• It conducts field observation of deep microbial ecosystem.

97. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

(a) Cartagena Protocol Biosafety

(b) Stockholm Convention Persistent organic pollutant

(d) Kyoto Protocol Save water

Answer: d

Explanation: Correctly matched pairs from the given options are-

A) Cartagena Protocol Biosafety

B) Stockholm Convention Persistent organic pollutant

C) Montreal Protocol Ozone layer

D) Kyoto Protocol is related to the reductions in greenhouse-gas emissions.

98. Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (a) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Maximum numbers of the species or butterflies are found in tropical countries.

Reason (R): Butterflies cannot tolerate low temperatures.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Both (a) and (R) are true and (R)is the correct explanation of (a)

(b) Both (a) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (a)

(d) (a) is false but (R) is true

Answer: a

Explanation: • Assertion (A) is correct as the butterflies are mostly found in tropical regions.

• Reason (R) is also correct, as butterflies live in tropical climate & their body can sustain temperature of tropical regions but they cannot tolerate low temperatures.

• Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).

99. The amount of energy during transfer from one tropic level to another in an ecosystem

(a) Increases

(b) Decreases

(d) May increase or decrease

Answer: b

Explanation: • The group of organisms which occupy the same level in a food chain within an ecosystem is known as a trophic level.

• The concept is used as a representation of energy flow in an ecosystem.

• Energy flows through the trophic levels from producers to higher trophic level is unidirectional.

• The amount of energy decreases during the transfer from one tropic level to another in an ecosystem.

100. Which of the following is associated with biological nitrogen fixation?

(a) Red algae

(b) Brown algae

(d) Blue-green algae

Answer: d

Explanation: • Atmospheric Nitrogen directly cannot be used by plants. First it needs to be fixed through certain bacteria.

• This process is known as Nitrogen fixation.

• It is an essential biological process and the initial stage of the nitrogen cycle.

• Certain bacterial like Rhizobium, Azotobacter, etc., helps in fixing atmospheric nitrogen into usable form.

• Nitrogen fixing bacteria make combination with cells of the roots of Pulses, as generally these bacterial are found in the root nodules of leguminous plants.

• Blue-green algae is associated with biological nitrogen fixation.

101. Smog is essentially caused by the atmospheric presence of

(a) Oxygen and ozone

(b) Ozone and nitrogen

(d) Oxide of nitrogen and sulphur

Answer: d

Explanation: • Smog is a kind of intense air pollution.

• It is made of smoke and fog.

• It is essentially caused by the presence of Oxide of nitrogen and sulphur.

• It is the result of the reaction of emissions from vehicles and industries with the sunlight and atmosphere.

• Most commonly occurring smog is the Photochemical smog.

102. The 'Global — 500’ Award is given for rare achievement in which of the following fields?

(a) Gene preservation

(b) Environment conservation

(d) Pollution control

Answer: b

Explanation: • United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) launched the ‘Global – 500’ Award or the Global 500 Roll of Honour was launched in 1987.

• The award is given to recognize and honour environmental achievement.

• Rare achievement in environment conservation is rewarded with the award.

• The World Wildlife Fund, Wangari Maathai, Jane Goodall & Jimmy Carter are prominent award winners.

103. Black-hole is

(a) a flight recorder in aeroplane

(b) a Spot on the sun

(d) a collapsed star

Answer: d

Explanation: • American Physicist John Archibald Wheeler coined the term black hole in the mid-1960s.

• A black hole is an object in space whose gravitational pull is so strong & density is so high no matter including light can escape its pull.

• Since light cannot escape, it is invisible.

• Albert Einstein theorized the Black-holes in 1915.

• Recently the first-ever image of a Black Hole was released by the Event Horizon Telescope Project.

104. The most biodiversity rich area in India is

(a) Gangetic plain

(b) Trans Himalayas

(d) Central India

Answer: c

Explanation: Western Ghats

• The Western Ghats are the parallel mountain range running along the western coast of India.

• It starts from Gujarat & covers the parts of the states including the states of Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu & Kerala.

• They are the most biodiversity rich area in India.

• These ghats are included in the “UNESCO World Heritage site” list.

• They are included in the “Biodiversity Hotspot” list.

• They are also included as “Hottest Hotspot” of biodiversity, being one of eight in the world.

105. Which of the following is a Nodal Institution for implementation or Sustainable Development Goals in India?

(a) Planning Commission

(b) Disinvestment Commission

(d) Finance Commission

Answer: c

Explanation: • Sustainable development is a kind of development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

• Sustainable development is important for well being of human society.

• NITI Aayog is the Nodal Institution for implementation of Sustainable Development Goals in India.

106. Arrange the following Committees formed for small scale sector in a chronological order and select the correct answer from the Codes given below:

I. Nayak Committee

II. Abid Hussain Committee

III. S.S. Kohli Committee

IV. Karve Committee

Codes:

(a) I, II, IV, III

(b) III, II, I, IV

(d) I, II, III, IV

Answer: c

Explanation: The correct chronological order of the given Committees formed for small scale sector in India are-

IV. Karve Committee

II. Abid Hussain Committee

I. Nayak Committee

III. S.S. Kohli Committee

107. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I (Programme)	List-II (Launch Year)
A. National Programme for Control of Blindness	1. 1975
B. Integrated child Development Scheme	2. 1976
C. National Leprosy Eradication Programme	3. 2005
D. National Rural Health Mission	4. 1983

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 2 4 1 3

(d) 4 3 2 1

Answer: c

Explanation: A) National Programme For control of Blindness - 1976

B) Integrated Child Development scheme - 1975

C) National Leprosy Eradication Programme - 1983

D) National Rural Health Mission - 2005

108. Given below are two statements, one is labeled us Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion

(A): The labour force participation rate falling sharply in the recent years for females in India.

Reason (R): The decline in labour force participation rate is due to the improved family income and increase in education.

Select the correct answer from codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Both (a) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (a)

(b) Both (a) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (a)

(d) (a) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: b

Explanation: • Assertion (A) :The Labour force participation rate falling sharply in the recent years for females in India.

• Assertion (A) is correct as the Labour force participation rate falling sharply in the recent years for females in India

• Reason (R) :The decline in labour force participation rate is due to the improved family income and increase in education.

• Reason (R) is also correct.

• Though Both (A) and (R) are true separately but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

109. The Dependency Ratio in India is declining because

(a) Population of 0-14 years is relatively high

(b) Population of 60 years and above is relatively high

(d) Population of 0-14 years and 60 years and above together are relatively high

Answer: c

Explanation: • Population in the age group of 15-59 years is called as the working population.

• A low Population in the age group of 15-59 years increases the Dependency Ratio.

• However, in case of India the Dependency Ratio in India is declining because the population of 15-59 years is relatively high.

110. Which of the following Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) will target in water availability for all and its permanent management upto 2030 in India?

(a) SDG-6

(b) SDG-7

(d) SDG-9

Answer: a

Explanation: • Sustainable development is a kind of development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

• Sustainable development is important for well being of human society. List of 17 are SDGs to be achieved by 2030 are-

• GOAL 1- No Poverty

• GOAL 2- Zero Hunger

• GOAL 3- Good Health and Well-being

• GOAL 4- Quality Education

• GOAL 5- Gender Equality

• GOAL 6- Clean Water and Sanitation

• GOAL 7- Affordable and Clean Energy

• GOAL 8- Decent Work and Economic Growth

• GOAL 9- Industry, Innovation and Infrastructure

• GOAL 10-Reduced Inequality

• GOAL 11-Sustainable Cities and Communities

• GOAL 12- Responsible Consumption and Production

• GOAL 13- Climate Action

• GOAL 14-Life Below Water

• GOAL 15- Life on Land

• GOAL 16- Peace and Justice Strong Institutions

• GOAL 17- Partnerships to achieve the Goal

111. Who has propounded the concept of ‘Limit to Growth'?

(a) Club of Rome

(b) UNESCO

(d) Agenda 21

Answer: a

Explanation: • The Limits to Growth is a concept of Club of Rome.

• The Club of Rome published the report in 1972.

• The report highlighted the exponential economic and population growth with a finite supply of resources.

• It is considered as a major landmark towards sustainable development.

112. The number of persons who remained unemployed for a major part of the year is called

(a) Usual status unemployment

(b) Daily status unemployment

(d) None of the above

Answer: a

Explanation: • Usual status unemployment- The number of people who remained unemployed for a major part of the year.

• Voluntary Unemployment- It refers to the situation of unemployment when workers choose not to work at the current equilibrium wage rate.

• Frictional Unemployment- It refers to unemployment when workers lose their present job and are in the search of another one.

• Disguised unemployment- It refers to more people’s employment for a job which fewer people can accomplish.

• Seasonal Employment- It refers to people employed only in a particular season of the year.

• Structural Unemployment- It refers to unemployment caused by changes in market conditions. It is a kind of unemployment in which there are people who are visibly employed but are actually unemployed or not utilizing their proper skills to its maximum level.

• Unemployment- It refers to persons with no proper jobs.

• Cyclical Unemployment- When people lose their jobs as a result of a downturn in aggregate demand.

113. With reference to the Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR), which of the statements is/are correct?

1. Companies Act 2014, introduces mandatory CSR.

2. Companies covered under this will have to spend atleast one percent of their annual net-profit in the activities under CSR.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 Only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: d

Explanation: • In India CSR was made mandatory for companies by an amendment to the Companies Act, 2013 in 2014.

• Under the Section 135(1) of the Act a company meeting the following conditions has mandatory social responsibility:

1) Net profit amounts to Rs 5 Crore or more

2) Turnover is Rs 1000 Crore or more or

3) Net worth is Rs 500 Crore or more

• As per the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2019, CSR is applicable to companies before completion of 3 financial years.

• As per the Companies (Amendment) Act, 2019, Companies would have to spend 2 percent of their profits in CSR activities.

• Under the Companies Act, businesses can invest their profits in areas such as promoting rural development in terms of healthcare, sanitation, education including skill development, environmental sustainability, etc.

114. Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) is developed by

(a) Morris D. Morris

(b) UNDP

(d) None of the above

Answer: a

Explanation: • The Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) is an index to measure the quality of life of a country.

• The index is developed by Morris D. Morris.

• The index is measured on the basis of following three parameters i.e.

⇒ Life expectancy at the age of 1 year

⇒ Infant mortality rate

⇒ Basic literacy rate

115. What is the India’s rank in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) in 2017?

(a) 100th

(b) 101th

(d) 105th

Answer: a

Explanation: • The Global Hunger Index (GHI) is an annual publication.

• It was jointly prepared by the Welt Hunger Hilfe & the Concern Worldwide .

• The index is based on four indicators which are-

⇒ Child mortality

⇒ Child wasting

⇒ Child stunting

⇒ Undernourishment

• India’s was ranked at 100th place in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) in 2017.

116. Match List — I with List — II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I (Vegetation Type)

List-II (Region)

A. Maquis

B. Fynbos

C. Chaparral

D. Matorral

1. California

2. Mediterranean Sea Coastal Region

3. South Africa

4. Chile

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 2 3 4 1

(b) 4 3 2 1

(d) 4 2 3 1

Answer: a

Explanation: A) Maquis - Mediterranean Sea Coastal Region

B) Fynbos - South Africa

C) Chaparral - California

D) Matorral - Chile

117. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I (Country)	List-II (Capital)
A. Uzbekistan	1. Tashkent
B. Tajikistan	2. Dushanbe
C. Kyrgyzstan	3. Bishkek
D. Turkmenistan	4. Ashgabat

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 3 4

(b) 1 2 4 3

(d) 1 4 2 3

Answer: a

Explanation: A) Uzbekistan - Tashkent

B) Tajikistan - Dushanbe

C) Kyrgyzstan - Bishkek

D) Turkmenistan - Ashgabat

118. Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I (Natural vegetation)	List-II (Region)
A. Epiphytes	1. Mediterranean
B. Macia	2. Equatorial
C. Baobab	3. Sahara
D. Cedars	4. Savanna

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 2 3 4 1

(b) 2 3 1 4

(d) 2 4 1 3

Answer: a

Explanation: A) Epiphytes - Equatorial

B) Acacia - Sahara

C) Baobab - Savanna

D) Cedars - Mediterranean

119. Which of the following is NOT correct matched?

(Tribe) (Place)

(a) Pygmy Congo basin

(b) Angami Nagaland

(d) Khirghiz Sudan

Answer: d

Explanation: The correctly matched pairs from the given options are-

A) Pygmy -- Congo basin

B) Angami -- Nagaland

C) Ainu -- Japan

D) Khirghiz are predominantly found in Kyrgyzstan.

120. Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Indian Ocean has become the Military bases of many big powers.

Reason (R): There is a strong geo-political benefit in Indian Ocean and adjacent Countries.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: b

Explanation: • Assertion (A) is correct as there are many military bases of major powers in Indian oceans such as in Seychelles, Diego Garcia, Mauritius etc.

• Reason (R) is also true that Indian ocean has its own geo-political advantages.

• Though Both (A) and (R) are true separately, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

121. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the hills of Central India located from West to East?

(a) Maikal, Satpura, Mahadeo and Chhotanagpur

(b) Satpura, Mahadeo, Maikal and chhotanagpur

(d) Satpura, Mahadeo, Chhotanagpur and Maikal

Answer: b

Explanation: The correct sequence of the hills of Central India located from West to East is-

• Satpura

• Mahadeo

• Maikal

• Chhotanagpur

122. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The highest concentration of Seismic zones lies in Himalayan region in India.

Reason (R): There are many longitudnal thrust Zones in Himalayas.

Codes:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the Correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: a

Explanation: • Assertion (A) is correct as the Himalaya is a new fold mountain & it is under the activity of endogenic forces.

• Reason (R) is also true.

• Reason (R) is the correct reason for Assertion (A) as the presence of many longitudinal thrust zones in Himalayas cause seismic activity in Himalaya.

123. ‘Imphal Basin’ surrounded by Manipur hills is a fine example of

(a) Lacustrine plain

(b) Loess plain

(d) Alluvial plain

Answer: a

Explanation: • Lacustrine plain are depositional plains.

• They are formed by deposits of a past lake.

• In some areas, the lake has shrunk but still exists.

• Imphal Basin’ surrounded by Manipur hills is a fine example of Lacustrine plain.

124. Which of the following rivers is famous for its fault valley drainage?

(a) Chambal

(b) Damodar

(d) Ramaganga

Answer: b

Explanation: • The Damodar River originates from the Palamau hills of Chota Nagpur plateau in Jharkhand.

• It is one of the most important river of Jharkhand & West Bengal.

• It is also known as “the sorrow of Bengal”.

• It is also famous for its rift valley drainage.

125. Which one of the following natural regions is known as ‘Land of Big Games’?

(a) Temperate Grassland

(b) Tropical Monsoon Region

(d) Tropical Savan Region

Answer: d

Explanation: • Tropical Savanna Region is confined to tropical regions and best developed in Sudan.

• It is a transitional climate between the equatorial rainforests and hot deserts.

• Tropical Savanna Region is known for alternate wet and dry seasons.

• Though it is similar to monsoon climate but it has considerably less rainfall & no distinct rainy season.

• The vegetation in the savannah is mainly tall grass and short trees.

• The grasslands of Savanah are also called as ‘bush-veld’.

• It is also known as the ‘Land of Big Games’.

126. With reference to the Himalayan range, which of the Statements is/are correct?

1. The sedimentary rocks of the greater Himalayas were fossil less.

2. Marine livings fossils are found in the sedimentary rocks of lesser Himalayas.

3. Remains of human civilization are found in outer or Shivalik Himalayas.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 Only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 Correct

Answer: d

Explanation: Correct statements about Himalayan range from the given options are-

• The sedimentary rocks of the greater Himalayas were fossil less.

• Marine livings fossils are found in the sedimentary rocks of lesser Himalayas.

• Remains of human civilization are found in outer or Shivalik Himalayas.

127. Given below are two Statements, one labeled as Assertion (A) and the Other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Akbar, like Shershah, tried to regulate the currency of the state.

Reason (R): As in Shershah’s Currency, the chief copper coin of Akbar’s time was the Dam.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Codes:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) i not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: b

Explanation: • Assertion (A) is correct as Akbar, tried to regulate the currency of the state as done by Shershah Suri.

• Reason (R) is also correct as the chief copper coin of Akbar’s time was also the Dam.

• Though Both (A) and (R) are correct separately but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

128. Arrange the following battles in chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

I. Battle of Sarnal

II. Battle of Bilgrarn

III. Battle of Dharmat

IV. Battle of Jajau

Codes:

(a) II, I, III, IV

(b) II, III, IV, I

(d) III, I, II, IV

Answer: a

Explanation: The correct chronological order from the given options are-

II. Battle of Bilgram (1540)

I. Battle of Sarnal (1572)

III. Battle of Dharmat (1658)

IV. Battle of Jajau (1707)

129. With reference to Hath Yog which of the following Statement is/are correct?

1. Hath Yog was practiced by Nathpanthis

2. Hath Yog technique was also adopted by the Sufis.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

Explanation: Correct statements about the Hath Yog from the given options are-

• Hath Yog was practiced by Nathpanthis.

• Hath Yog technique was also adopted by the Sufis.

130. Which one of the following is NOT the characteristic of ‘Iqta System’?

(a) Iqta was a revenue collection system

(b) Siyasatnama was the source of information for Iqta System

(d) Muqti was supported to maintain troops out of the revenue Collected from Iqta

Answer: c

Explanation: The characteristics of ‘Iqta System’ are-

• Iqta was a revenue collection system.

• Siyasatnama was the source of information for Iqta System.

• Revenue collected from Iqta was used for administered expenditure of Iqtadar (like for maintenance of his army, his pay and other expenditure) and rest was deposited in the state treasury.

• Muqti was supported to maintain troops out of the revenue collected from Iqta.

131. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

(Books) (Writers)

(a) Tabaqat-i-Nasiri Minhaj-us-Siraj-Juzjani

(b) Tarikh-i-Firozshahi Shams-i-Siraj-Afif

(d) Humayunnama Gulbadan Begam

Answer: c

Explanation: The correctly matched pair from the given options are-

A) Tabaqat-i- Nasiri Minhaj-us-Siraj-Juzjani

B) Tarikh-i- Shams-i-Siraj-Afif Firozshahi

C) Humayunama GulbadanBegam

D) Tughlaqnama was written by Amir Khusrau.

132. In which year was the 'Native Marriage Act’ passed?

(a) 1870

(b) 1891

(d) 1876

Answer: b

Explanation: • The 'Age of consent Act’ was passed in the year 1891.

133. Match List - I with List — II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I (Movement)	List-II (Year)
A. Pabna	1. 1855-56
B. Eka	2. 1873-85
C. Santhaj	3. 1922
D. Tana Bhagat	4. 1914

Codes:

A B C D

(a) 1 2 4 3

(b) 2 3 1 4

(d) 4 3 2 1

Answer: b

Explanation:

A) Pabna - 1873-76

B) Eka - 1921

C) Santhal - 1855-56

D) Tana Bhagat - 1914

134. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

(Event) (Year)

(a) Endran Navy Act 1927

(b) civil Disobedience Movement 1930

(d) The Communal Award 1933

Answer: d

Explanation: The correctly matched pair from the given options are-

A) Indian Navy Act 1927

B) Civil Disobedience Movement 1930

C) Second Round Table Conference 1931

D) The Communal awards were announced August 16, 1932

135. Arrange the following events in a chronological order and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

I. Appointment of Simon commission

II. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre

III. Mahatma Gandhi's Dandi March

IV. Death of Ferozshah Mehta

Codes:

(a) IV, II, I, III

(b) IV, III, IV, III

(d) IV, III, II, I

Answer: a

Explanation: The correct chronological order of the given events is-

IV. Death of Ferozshah Mehta (5 November, 1915)

II. Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (13 April 1919)

I. Appointment of Simon Commission (Appointment announced in Nov. 1927)

III. Mahatma Gandhi’s Dandi March (April 6, 1930)

136. The trial of the Officers of the I.N.A was held in

(a) Red Fort, Delhi

(b) GwaIior Fort

(d) Agra Fort

Answer: a

Explanation: • There was popular pressure against the trial of the Indian National Army which brought about a decisive shift in the British government’s policy.

• It was decided by the Britishers to hold public trials of INA prisoners.

• The first trial of the Officers of the I.N.A was held in Red Fort, Delhi in November 1945.

137. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): The Asiatic Society of Bengal was established in the period of warren Hastings and he modestly declined the offer of President Ship of that learned body in favour of Sir William Jones.

Reason (R): Warren Hastings was himself a great scholar and an ardent orientalise who used to encourage the study of Sanskrit Persian and Arabic.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: b

Explanation: • Assertion (A): The Asiatic Society of Bengal was established in the period of Warren Hastings and he modestly declined the offer of Presidentship of that learned body in favour of Sir William Jones.

• Assertion (A) is correct as The Asiatic Society of Bengal was established on 15 January 1784, which was in the period of Warren Hastings (1772-1785). Also Warren Hastings modestly declined the offer of Presidentship of that learned body in favour of Sir William Jones.

• Reason (R): Warren Hasting was himself a great scholar and an ardent orientalist who used to encourage the study of Sanskrit, Persian and Arabic.

• Reason (R) is also correct.

• Though Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

138. With reference to the National Calendar, which of the statement is/are Correct?

1. The National calendar of India is based on Vikram Era.

2. The National calendar is adopted from January 26, 1950.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: d

Explanation: Correct statements about the National Calendar of India are

• The National Calendar of India is based on the Saka Era.

• The National Calendar is adopted from 22 March 1957.

139. In which year was accounting separated from auditing and Comptroller and Auditor General’s task only remained confined to auditing the Government Accounts?

(a) 1975

(b) 1977

(d) 1981

Answer: c

Explanation: i) CAG performs following duties under CAG (Duties, Powers & Conditions of Service) act, 1971 as provided under article 149-

ii) Under article 150, he advices the President with regard to prescription of the form in which the accounts of the Centre and the states shall be kept.

iii) Under article 151 he Submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of the Central Government to the President, who shall, in turn, place them before both the Houses of Parliament. He also submits his audit reports relating to the accounts of a state government to the Governor, who shall, in turn, place them before the state legislature.

iv) Under article 279 he ascertains and certifies the net proceeds of any tax or duty. This certificate is final. The ‘net proceeds’ means the proceeds of a tax or a duty minus the cost of collection.

v) In respect to the Public Accounts Committee- He acts as a guide of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament.

vi) He compiles and maintains the accounts of state governments.

• In the year 1976 the accounting was separated from auditing and Comptroller and Auditor General’s task only remained confined to auditing the Government Accounts.

140. Who opposed Planned Development in India?

(a) Mahatma Gandhi

(b) Jawaharlal Nehru

(d) Rajiv Gandhi

Answer: a

Explanation: • Gandhian model of development laid more emphasis on agriculture.

• He was in the favour of industrialisation to the level of promoting cottage and village-level industries, unlike a leading role for the heavy and large industries.

• His model focused upon ‘decentralised economic structure’ for India.

• He also focused on ‘self-sufficient villages’.

• Mahatma Gandhi opposed Planned Development in India.

141. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).

Assertion (A): Article 30 of the Constitution of India does not define the term 'minorities'.

Reason (R): The Constitution recognises only linguistic and religious minorities.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false, hut (R) is true

Answer: b

Explanation: • Assertion (A) is true as Article 30 of the Indian constitution is about the right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions; however, it does not define the term 'minority'.

• Reason (R) is true as the Indian constitution recognises only linguistic and religious minorities in Article 29, 30 & 350-B.

• Although both (A) and (R) are true separately, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

142. With reference to the federal system in India, which of the statements is/are correct?

1. States have no right to secede from the Union under the Constitution of India.

2. Just advocacy of secession will have the protection of freedom of expression.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: a

Explanation: Correct statements about the federal system in India are-

• States have no right to secede from the Union under the Constitution of India.

• Just advocacy of secession will not have the protection of freedom of expression.

143. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

(a) Public Health and Sanitation State List

(b) Census Union List

(d) Anti-Defection Tenth Schedule

Answer: c

Explanation: Correctly matched pairs in the given options are

A) Public Health and Sanitation --State List

B) Census -- Union List

C) Anti-Defection -- Tenth Schedule

D) Allocation of seats in the Council of States is provided in fourth schedule of Indian constitution.

144. How many items are there in the 11th schedule of the Constitution of India?

(a) 22

(b) 24

(d) 32

Answer: c

Explanation:

Eleventh Schedule of Indian Constitution- 29 functional items placed in this schedule are

1) Safe drinking water

2) Minor forest produce

3) Animal Husbandry including Dairying and poultry

4) Land improvement, land consolidation and soil conservation, implementation of land reforms.

5) Minor irrigation, watershed development and water management.

6) Social forestry and farm forestry

7) Small scale industries including food processing industry

8) Social welfare, including welfare of the mentally retarded and handicapped

9) Agriculture including agricultural extension

10) Khadi, village and cottage industries

11) Road, culverts, waterways, bridges, ferries and other means of communication

12) Fuel and fodder

13) Rural electrification, including distribution of electricity

14) Fisheries Industry

15) Education including primary and secondary schools

16) Non-conventional sources of energy

17) Technical training and vocational education

18) Adult and non-formal education

19) Public distribution system

20) Maintenance of community assets

21) Welfare of the weaker sections, particularly of the schedule caste and schedule tribes

22) Health and sanitation including hospitals, primary health centres and dispensaries

23) Poverty Alleviation Programmes

24) Women and child development

25) Markets and Fairs

26) Rural housing

27) Cultural activities

28) Libraries

29) Family welfare

145. With reference to Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) which one of the statements is/are correct?

1. It came into existence in 1977.

2. It is headed by the Cabinet Secretary.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) Only 2

(b) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

Explanation: Correct statements about the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) are-
• It came into existence in 1977.
• It is headed by the Principal Secretary.

146. The provision of the sixth Schedule of Indian Constitution are applicable in which of the following states?

(a) Tripura

(b) Sikkim

(d) All of the above

Answer: a

Explanation:

• The provisions of the sixth Schedule of Indian Constitution are applicable to the following states of India-

⇒ Meghalaya

⇒ Mizoram

⇒ Assam

⇒ Tripura

147. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?

(a) Hubeas corpus 'To have the body of’

(b) Mandamus ‘We command’

(d) Quo-Warranto ‘By what authority’

Answer: c

Explanation: Correctly matched pairs are

A) Habeas corpus body -- To have the body of'

B) Mandamus -- ‘We Command’

C) Quo-warranto -- ‘By what authority’

D)

148. The Money Bill is defined in which Article of the Constitution of India?

(a) Article 109

(b) Article 110

(d) Article 112

Answer: b

Explanation:

• The Money Bill is defined in Article 110 of the Constitution of India.

• The article contains detailed definition of the money bill.

• It also states that a Bill shall not be deemed to be a Money Bill in case of imposition of fines or penalties, or fees for licences or or taxes imposed by local authority for local purposes.

• The article states that the decision of Lok sabha speaker decision is final in deciding whether a bill is money bill or not.

149. Cross border oil pipeline inaugurated by P.M. Modi in September 2019 Connects which of the following cities?

(a) Motihari and Amlekhganj

(b) Darbhanga and Amlekhganj

(d) None of these

Answer: a

Explanation: • Cross border oil pipeline inaugurated by P.M. Modi in September 2019 connects cities of Motihari and Amlekhganj.

• It is South Asia’s first cross-border petroleum product pipeline connecting India & Nepal.

• It will reduce the retail oil prices in Nepal by Rs. 2.

150. Jaipur was listed as 'World Heritage Site' by the UNESCO 'World Heritage Committee' in its 43rd Session held in the city

(a) Baku (Azerbaizan)

(b) Bishkek (Kyrgyzstan)

(d) Marakesh (Morocco)

Answer: a

Explanation: • The walled city of Jaipur, was founded in 1727 AD.

• This city was constructed under the patronage of Sawai Jai Singh II.

• The city which is known for its iconic architectural legacy and vibrant culture, was entered into the UNESCO World Heritage Site list in July 2019.

• Jaipur was listed as ‘World Heritage Site’ by the UNESCO ‘World Heritage Committee’ in its 43rd Session held in the city of Baku (Azerbaizan).

UPPSC Prelims 2019 Solution PDF Download