UPPSC – PCS Prelims 2017 Question Paper With Solution
Previous year’s papers play an important role in the preparation of exams. We have compiled the solution of UPPSC Prelims 2017 question paper. This solution will definitely help you all with prelims preparation.
पिछले वर्ष के प्रश्नपत्र परीक्षा की तैयारी में महत्वपूर्ण भूमिका निभाते हैं। हमने यूपीपीएससी प्रीलिम्स 2017 के पिछले साल के प्रश्न पत्र का समाधान संकलित किया है ये समाधान निश्चित रूप से आप सभी को प्रारंभिक परीक्षा की तैयारी में मदद करेंगे।
1) Swadesh Darshan Scheme launched by Government of India does not include
development of which of the following tourist circuit?
(a) Heritage circuit
(b) Sufi circuit
(c) Ramayan circuit
(d) Coastal circuit
Answer: B
Explanation: Under the Swadesh Darshan scheme, thirteen thematic circuits
have been identified, for development namely: North-East India Circuit, Buddhist
Circuit, Himalayan Circuit, Coastal Circuit, Krishna Circuit, Desert Circuit,
Tribal Circuit, Eco Circuit, Wildlife Circuit, Rural Circuit, Spiritual Circuit,
Ramayana Circuit and Heritage Circuit.
2) With affect from 1 April, 2017 the minimum wage for unskilled labour in
Uttar Pradesh has been fixed at :
(a) Rs.7000 per month
(b) Rs.7400 per month
(c) Rs.7800 per month
(d) Rs.8200 per month
Answer: B
Explanation: With affect from 1 April, 2017 the minimum wage for unskilled
labour in Uttar Pradesh has been fixed at Rs.7400 per month.
3) Which one of the following states is ranked economically at the top but
lowest on the basis of sex ratio?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) West Bengal
(d) Haryana
Answer *
Explanation:
Given states according to the GSDP in decreasing order- 1. Maharashtra , 2.
West Bengal 3. Madhya Pradesh 4. Haryana
Given states according to sex ratio in increasing order- 1. Haryana 2.
Maharashtra 3. Madhya Pradesh 4. West Bengal
4) According to the National Family Health Survey 3, private medical sector is the primary source of health care in India for:
(a) 50% households in urban areas
(b) 60% households in urban areas
(c) 70% households in urban areas
(d) 80% households in urban areas
Answer: C
Explanation: According to the National Family Health Survey 3, private medical
sector is the primary source of health care in India for 70% households in urban
areas.
5) Which among the following statements are true about ‘Urja Ganga’ project?
1. It is a gas pipe line project
2. It was launched in October 2016
3. It runs from Iran to India
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(a) Only 2 and 3 are correct
(b) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(c) Only 1 and 3 are correct
(d) All 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Answer: B
Explanation:
Urja Ganga gas pipeline project was inaugurated by Prime Minister
Narendra Modi in his constituency Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh. A pipeline of length
2540km is planned to be laid across the states from Uttar Pradesh to Odisha. It
was launched on 24 october 2016. The project is committed to provide the
household members health safety by providing clean fuel with the piped gas to
the locals of Varanasi and later to Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal and Odisha.
The seven main station cities include Varanasi, Patna, Bokaro, Jamshedpur,
Kolkata, Ranchi, Bhubaneswar and Cuttack as the major beneficiaries of the
project.
6) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code
given below the lists :
List I [Industry] | List II [Centre] |
A. Sports goods | 1. Moradabad |
B. Match box | 2. Saharanpur |
C. Brass ware | 3. Meerut |
D. Wood carving | 4. Bareilly |
Codes: A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 4 2 1
Answer: B
Explanation:
Sports goods---------- Meerut
Match box------------ Bareilly
Brass ware------------ Moradabad
Wood carving-------- Saharanpur
7) In which year UNO adopted a definition of absolute poverty?
(a) 1994
(b) 1995
(c) 1996
(d) 1997
Answer: B
Explanation:
in 1995 the United Nations adopted the definition of absolute poverty.
Absolute poverty was defined as a condition characterised by severe deprivation
of basic human needs, including food, safe drinking water, sanitation
facilities, health, shelter, education and information. It depends not only on
income but also on access to services.
8) Which among the following is not a parameter for estimating Global Gender
Gap Index of World Economic Forum?
(a) Health
(b) Education
(c) Economy
(d) Leisure
Answer- D
Explanation: Through the Global Gender Gap Report, the World Economic Forum
quantifies the magnitude of gender disparities and tracks their progress over
time, with a specific focus on the relative gaps between women and men across
four key areas: health, education, economy and politics.
9) Where was the first world summit on social development under the aegis
of UNESCO held?
(a) London
(b) New York
(c) Paris
(d) Copenhagen
Answer- D
Explanation: The first world summit on social development under the aegis of
UNESCO held at Copenhagen . At the World Summit for Social Development (WSSD),
held in March 1995 in Copenhagen, Governments reached a new consensus on the
need to put people at the centre of development. The Social Summit was the
largest gathering ever of world leaders at that time.
10) Which among the following services is not provided under Integrated
Child Development Services [ICDS] scheme?
(a) Supplementary feeding
(b) Immunisation
(c) Distribution of freebooks and school dress to the children
(d) Health and Nutrition Education to 3-6 year old children
Answer- C
Explanation: Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) is a government
programme in India which provides food, preschool education, and primary
healthcare to children under 6 years of age and their mothers. The scheme was
launched in 1975, discontinued in 1978 by the government of Morarji Desai, and
then relaunched by the Tenth Five Year Plan.
The following services are sponsored under ICDS to help achieve its objectives:
- Immunization
- Supplementary nutrition
- Health checkup
- Referral services
- Pre-school education (Non-Formal)
- Nutrition and Health information
11) Which of the following is not correctly matched?
Scheme ------ Aim
(a) UDAY – Improving finances of power distribution companies
(b) HRIDAY – preserving and revitalizing heritage cities
(c) AMRUT – Improving basic urban infrastructure in cities
(d) Swachch Bharat Mission – Safe drinking water
Answer- D
Explanation: Swachh Bharat Abhiyan (SBA) (Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) or Clean
India Mission in English) is a campaign in India that aims to clean up the
streets, roads and infrastructure of India's cities, smaller towns, and rural
areas. The objectives of Swachh Bharat include eliminating open defecation
through the construction of household-owned and community-owned toilets and
establishing an accountable mechanism of monitoring toilet use.
12) As per the Economic Survey 2015 – 16, which one of the following has been
constructed as the Chakravyuha Challenge of the Indian economy?
(a) Movement of Indian Economy from socialism to capitalism
(b) Movement of Indian Economy from socialism with limited entry to marketism
with exit
(c) Movement of Indian Economy from socialism with limited entry to marketism
without exit
(d) Movement of Indian Economy from mixed economy to capitalism
Answer -C
Explanation: The Economic Survey 2015-16 presented by the Union Finance Minister Shri Arun Jaitley invokes the legend of the Charkravyuha from the Mahabharata
describing the ability to enter but not exit, with seriously adverse
consequences. The Indian economy has made great strides in removing barriers to
entry for firms, talent, and technology but less progress has been made in
relation to exit. Thus, over the course of six decades, the Indian economy has
moved from ‘socialism with limited entry to “marketism” without exit’
13) Consider the following schemes and arrange these in chronological order of
their launching :
1. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana
2. Digital Gender Atlas for Advancing Girls Education in India.
3. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana.
4. Mudra Bank Yojana
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 3
(b) 3, 2, 1 and 4
(c) 2, 1, 3 and 4
(d) 3, 1, 2 and 4
Answer- A
Explanation: Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), is financial
inclusionprogram of Government of India,that aims to expand and make affordable
access to financial services such as bank accounts, remittances, credit,
insurance and pensions. This financial inclusioncampaign was launched by the
Prime Minister of India Narendra Modi on 15 August 2014.
The Ministry of Human Resource Development, Department of School Education and
Literacy, presented the Digital Gender Atlas for Advancing Girls’ Education in
India. The tool, which has been developed with the support of UNICEF, will help
identify low performing geographic pockets for girls, particularly from
marginalised groups such as scheduled castes, schedule tribes and Muslim
minorities, on specific gender related education indicators.
Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana is a government-backed accident insurance
scheme in India. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana is available to people
between 18 and 70 years of age with bank accounts
Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency Bank (or MUDRA Bank) is a public
sector financial institution in India. It provides loans at low rates to
micro-finance institutions and non-banking financial institutions which then
provide credit to MSMEs. It was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 8
April 2015
14) Which one of the following countries joined India and USA in the Malabar
naval exercise held in July 2017?
(a) Japan
(b) South Korea
(c) France
(d) Philippines
Answer- A
Explanation: Exercise Malabar is a trilateral naval exercise involving the
United States, Japan and India as permanent partners. Originally begun in 1992
as a bilateral exercise between India and the United States, Japan became a
permanent partner in 2015.
15) What is India’s rank in the 2017 Sustainable Development Goal Index?
(a) 116th
(b) 125th
(c) 108th
(d) 95th
Answer- A
Explanation: India’s rank in the 2017 Sustainable Development Goal Index was
116th .
16) The first DEMU train of India with solar powered coaches was launched on
14th July, 2017 at :
(a) Sarai Rohilla Railway Station
(b) New Delhi Railway Station
(c) Safdarjung Railway Station
(d) Delhi Cantt. Railway Station
Answer -C
Explanation: The first DEMU train of India with solar powered coaches was
launched on 14th July, 2017 at Safdarjung Railway Station.
17) Who among the following Indian scientists was awarded the 2017 Dan David
prize in ‘future’ category ?
(a) Dronamraju K.Rao
(b) Biman Bagchi
(c) C.N.R. Rao
(d) Shrinivas Kulkarni
Answer- D
Explanation: Shrinivas Kulkarni was awarded the 2017 Dan David prize in ‘future’
category
18) Which one of the following countries was the winner of FIFA confederations
cup 2017?
(a) Chile
(b) Germany
(c) Mexico
(d) Portugal
Answer- B
Explanation: Germany was the winner of FIFA confederations cup 2017.
19) Consider the following statements regarding G-20 summits :
1. The 12th G-20 summit was held in Germany.
2. The 13th G-20 summit will be held in China.
3. The 14th G-20 summit will be held in Japan.
Of the above the correct statements are :
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer B
Explanation:
G-20 summit Location
12th Germany
13th Argentina
14th Japan
15th Saudi Arabia
20) Consider the following statements regarding the performance of Mithali Raj
in women’s One Day International Cricket :
1. She is the first ever to score more than 6000 runs.
2. She scored a century on her debut.
3. She holds the record for scoring 7 consecutive half centuries.
4. She holds the world record for scoring highest number of centuries.
Of the above, the correct statements are :
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 3 and 4 only
Answer A
Explanation: Mithali Raj is the highest run-scorer in women's international
cricket and the only female cricketer to surpass the 6,000 run mark in WODIs.
She is the first player to score 7 consecutive 50s in ODIs. Raj also holds the
record for most half-centuries in WODIs. In June 2018 during the 2018 Women's
Twenty20 Asia Cup, Mithali Raj became the first player from India (either male
or female) to score 2000 runs in T20Is and also set the milestone for becoming
the first woman cricketer to reach 2000 T20I runs.
Raj is the only player (male or female) to have captained India in more than one
ICC ODI World Cup final, doing so twice in 2005 and 2017.
21) The length of the Dhola – Sadia bridge inaugurated in May 2017 is around
(a) 12.15 km
(b) 11.15 km
(c) 10.15 km
(d) 9.15 km
Answer -D
Explanation: The Dhola–Sadiya Bridge, also referred to as the Bhupen Hazarika
Setu , is a beam bridge in India, connecting the northeast states of Assam and
Arunachal Pradesh. The bridge spans the Lohit River, a major tributary of the
Brahmaputra River, from the village of Dhola (Tinsukia District) in the south to
Sadiya to the north. The bridge is the first permanent road connection between
the northern Assam and eastern Arunachal Pradesh. At 9.15 kilometres (5.69 mi)
in length, it is the longest bridge in India.
22) India’s first semi-high speed train ‘Tejas’ will run between :
(a) Dadar and Kamthe
(b) Thane and Kolad
(c) Mumbai and Karmali
(d) Mumbai and Pune
Answer- C
Explanation: The Tejas Express is India’s first semi-high speed fully
air-conditioned train. Introduced by Indian Railways. It features modern
on-board facilities with automatic doors. The inaugural run of Tejas Express was
on 24 May 2017 from Mumbai CST to Karmali, Goa.
23) The Shanghai Cooperation Organization summit in which India, was inducted as
a full member was held at
(a) Ufa
(b) Dushanbe
(c) Tashkent
(d) Astana
Answer -D
Explanation: The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO), or Shanghai Pact, is a
Eurasian political, economic, and security alliance, the creation of which was
announced on 15 June 2001 in Shanghai, China by the leaders of China,
Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan; the Shanghai
Cooperation Organisation Charter, formally establishing the organisation, was
signed in June 2002 and entered into force on 19 September 2003. India and
Pakistan joined SCO as full members on 9 June 2017 at a summit in Astana,
Kazakhstan.
24) The host country of the 9th BRICS summit is :
(a) China
(b) Russia
(c) Brazil
(d) South Africa
Answer- A
Explanation: The 2017 BRICS summit was the ninth annual BRICS summit, an
international relations conference attended by the heads of state or heads of
government of the five member states Brazil, Russia, India, China and South
Africa. The summit was held in Xiamen, China.
25) Which one of the following cities was ranked the dirtiest by the Urban
Development Ministry in a list released in May 2017?
(a) Meerut
(b) Ghaziabad
(c) Gonda
(d) Shahjahanpur
Answer -C
Explanation: Gonda was ranked the dirtiest by the Urban Development Ministry in
a list released in May 2017.
26) Who among the following has been honoured with the 2016 ‘Saraswati Samman’?
(a) Padma Sachdev
(b) Govind Mishra
(c) Surjit Paatar
(d) Mahabaleshwar Sail
Answer- D
Explanation: Mahabaleshwar Sail is an Indian author. He has been honoured with
the Saraswati Samman, 2016 for his novel 'Hawthan'. Sail initially wrote in
Marathi language but later started writing in Konkani language too.
27) What has been the theme of the 2017 World Population Day?
(a) Be counted : Say what you need
(b) Investing in teenage girls
(c) Vulnerable population in emergency
(d) Family planning : Empowering people, Developing Nations
Answer -D
Explanation: In 1989, the Governing Council of the United Nations Development
Programme recommended that 11 July be observed by the international community as
World Population Day, a day to focus attention on the urgency and importance of
population issues. Theme of the 2017 World Population Day was “Family Planning:
Empowering People, Developing Nations.” Theme of the 2017 World Population Day
was “Family Planning is a Human Right”.
28) A Japanese Encephalities Research Centre is to be set up in :
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Punjab
Answer- B
Explanation: Japanese Encephalities Research Centre is to be set up in Gorakhpur
(Uttar Pradesh).
29) The foundation of what is being claimed as India’s biggest Global skill park
was laid in July 2017 in
(a) Lucknow
(b) Bengaluru
(c) Bhopal
(d) Jaipur
Answer -C
Explanation: Shivraj Singh Chouhan (the Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh) and
Rajeev Pratap Rudy (the Union Minister of State for Skill Development and
Entrepreneurship) has laid the foundation stone of the India’s biggest Global
Skill Park in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh on July 3, 2017.
30) Who heads the panel on National Education Policy constituted in June 2017 by
the Human Resource Development Ministry?
(a) K.J.Alphonse
(b) Ram Shankar Kureel
(c) K.Kasturiranjan
(d) M.K.Shridhar
Answer -C
Explanation: K.Kasturiranjan heads the panel on National Education Policy
constituted in June 2017 by the Human Resource Development Ministry.
31) Who is the first Indian to win the Australian Open Badminton super series
title in men’s singles?
(a) S.Preenath
(b) K.Srikanth
(c) H.S.Prannoy
(d) P.Padukone
Answer -B
Explanation: K.Srikanth is the first Indian to win the Australian Open Badminton
super series title in men’s singles.
32) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given
below the lists :
List – I [Institute] | List II [City] |
A. Forest Research Institute | 1. Jodhpur |
B. Indian Grassland and Fodder Research Institute | 2. New Delhi |
C. Central Arid Zone Research Institute | 3. Dehradun |
D. Indian Agricultural Research Institute | 4. Jhansi |
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 4 2 3 1
Answer -B
Explanation
Institute----- Location
Forest Research Institute --Dehradun
Indian Grassland and Fodder Research Institute --Jhansi
Central Arid Zone Research Institute --Jodhpur
Indian Agricultural Research Institute --New Delhi
33) The web based platform ‘Pratibimba’ to project government’s achievements was
launched in March 2017 by the government of :
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
Answer - C
Explanation: Karnataka had launched a comprehensive web-based platform
“’Pratibimba” to showcase the government’s performance and achievements to the
citizens. The platform is developed as the Chief Minister’s dash board that will
serve as a tool to improve efficiency in governance and allow citizens to track
government’s progress.
34) According to the World Happiness Report published by the U.N. Sustainable
Development Solutions Network in 2017, which one of the following is the overall
happiest country in the world?
(a) Iceland
(b) Denmark
(c) Switzerland
(d) Norway
Answer -D
Explanation: The World Happiness Report is an annual publication of the United
Nations Sustainable Development Solutions Network which contains rankings of
national happiness and analysis of the data from various perspectives.
In 2017, Norway was ranked 1st in this index.
India was ranked 133rd among 156 countries in World Happiness Index 2018.
Finland was ranked happiest country in 2018.
35) Which among the following is not included in the ten main themes of the
Union budget for the financial years 2017-18?
(a) Export performance
(b) The poor and the underprivileged
(c) Youth
(d) Rural population
Answer -A
Explanation:
10 main theme of Union budget for the financial years 2017-18:
1. Farmers, for whom we have committed to double the income in five years.
2. Rural population: Providing employment and basic infrastructure
3. Youth: Energising them through education, skills and jobs.
4. Poor and the underprivileged: Strengthening the systems of social security,
health care and affordable housing.
5. Infrastructure: For efficiency, productivity and quality of life.
6. Financial sector: Growth and stability through stronger institutions
7. Digital economy: For speed, accountability and transparency.
8. Public service: Effective governance and efficient service delivery through
people’s participation.
9. Prudent fiscal management: To ensure optimal deployment of resources and
preserve fiscal stability.
10. Tax Administration: Honouring the honest.
36) Where was the International Conference for Peace talks between Israel and
Palestine held in 2017?
(a) Geneva
(b) Washington
(c) Paris
(d) Berlin
Answer - C
Explanation: International Conference for Peace talks between Israel and
Palestine held in 2017 at Paris.
37) The size of the Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter [R.S.P.M] in air is
:
(a) more than 7 μm [microne]
(b) more than 6 μm [microne]
(c) more than 5 μm [microne]
(d) less than 5 μm [microne]
Answer -D
Explanation: Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter [R.S.P.M] is that fraction
of Total Suspended Particulate Matter [TSPM], which is readily inhaled by humans
through their respiratory system and in general, considered as particulate
matter with their diameter (aerodynamic) less than 2.5 micrometers. Larger
particles would be filtered in the nasal duct.
38) How many agro climatic zones are found in Uttar Pradesh?
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d) 12
Answer -C
Explanation:
Agro-Climatic Zone of Uttar Pradesh:
Uttar Pradesh ,
Bhabhar and Tarai Zone: Bijnour, Pilibhit, Rampur,
Bundelkhand Zone: Banda, Chitrakoot, Hamirpur, Jalaun, Jhansi, Lalitpur, Mahoba,
Central Zone: Allahabad, Auraiya, Etawah, Farrukhabad, Fatehpur, Hardoi, Kannauj, Kanpur Dehat, Kaushambi, Lucknow, Pratapgarh, Raebareli, Sitapur, Unnao,
Eastern Plain Zone: Ambedkar nagar, Azamgarh, Ballia, Barabanki, Chandauli, Faizabad, Ghazipur, Jaunpur, Mau, Sultanpur, Varanasi,
Mid Western Plain Zone: Badaun, Bareilly, Moradabad, Shahjahanpur,
North Eastern Plain Zone: Bahraich, Balrampur, Basti, Deoria, Gonda, Gorakhpur, Kushinagar, Lakhimpur kheri, Maharaj ganj, Sant Kabir Nagar, Shravasti, Siddharth Nagar,
South Western Semi Arid Zone: Agra, Aligarh, Etah, Firozabad, Mahamaya nagar, Mainpuri, Mathura, Vindhyan Zone , Mirzapur, Sant Ravidas nagar, Sonbhadra,
Western Plain Zone: Baghpat, Bulandsahar, Gbnagar, Ghaziabad, Meerut, Muzfarnagar, Saharanpur.
39) Given below are two statements :
Assertion [A] : Climate change is leading to increase in social tension in
India.
Reason [R] : The frequency and intensity of the extreme weather events will have
serious repercussions on food security.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(a) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct reason of [A]
(b) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is not the correct reason of [A]
(c) [A] is true but [R] is false
(d) [A] is false but [R] is true
Answer -A
Explanation- both assertion and reasons are true
40) Which one of the following is the First National Park established in India?
(a) Chandoli National Park
(b) Jim Corbett National Park
(c) Gir Forest National Park
(d) Dudhwa National Park
Answer -B
Explanation: Jim Corbett National Park is the oldest national park in India and
was established in 1936 as Hailey National Park to protect the endangered Bengal
tiger. It is located in Nainital district of Uttarakhand and was named after Jim
Corbett who played a key role in its establishment. The park was the first to
come under the Project Tiger initiative.
41) Which one of the following is the correct order of biological organization
ranging from organism to biosphere ?
(a) Population → Ecosystem → Community → Landscape
(b) Landscape → Community → Ecosystem → Population
(c) Population → Community → Ecosystem → Landscape
(d) Population → Landscape → Community → Ecosystem
Answer- C
Explanation: correct order of biological organization ranging from organism to
biosphere is
Population → Community → Ecosystem → Landscape
42) Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
Green House Gas – Source
(a) Carbon dioxide – Thermal Power Stations
(b) Chloro fluro carbon – Automobile
(c) Nitrous Oxide – Waterlogged Paddy fields
(d) Sulphur dioxide – Brick Kilns
Answer -B
Explanation:
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) have no natural source, but were entirely synthesized
for such diverse uses as refrigerants, aerosol propellants and cleaning
solvents. Their creation was in 1928 and since then concentrations of CFCs in
the atmosphere have been rising.
43) Which one of the following atmospheric changes takes place due to green
house effect?
(a) Increase in carbon dioxide concentration in atmosphere
(b) Increase in humidity in atmosphere
(c) Increase in biological population
(d) Increase in wind speed
Answer -A
Explanation: Green house effect leads to increase in the global temperature.
This is caused by the increase in the green house gases in the atmosphere.
Carbon dioxide is one of the green house gases, whose concentration is increased
as a result of green house effect.
44) ‘The Decade of Sustainable Energy for All’ is the initiative of :
(a) United Nations
(b) India
(c) Germany
(d) World Bank
Answer -A
Explanation: The Sustainable Energy for All initiative is a multi-stakeholder
partnership between governments, the private sector, and civil society. Launched
by the UN Secretary-General in 2011, it has three interlinked objectives to be
achieved by 2030:
1. Ensure universal access to modern energy services.
2. Double the global rate of improvement in energy efficiency.
3. Double the share of renewable energy in the global energy mix.
These objectives are complementary. Progress in achieving one can help with
progress toward the others. The Sustainable Energy for All initiative also acts
in support of the 2014-2024 Decade of Sustainable Energy for All, as declared by
the UN General Assembly.
45) Bhopal Gas Tragedy was caused due to the leakage of :
(a) Methyl Isocynate
(b) Nitrogen dioxide
(c) Sulphur dioxide
(d) Carbon monoxide
Answer -A
Explanation: The Bhopal disaster, also referred to as the Bhopal gas tragedy,
was a gas leak incident on the night of 2–3 December 1984 at the Union Carbide
India Limited (UCIL) pesticide plant in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh. Over 500,000
people were exposed to methyl isocyanate (MIC) gas.
46) Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
Pollutant – Disease caused
(a) Mercury – Minamata disease
(b) Cadmium – Itai – Itai disease
(c) Nitrate Ion – Blue baby syndrome
(d) Fluoride Ion – Indigestion
Answer -D
Explanation: Ingestion of excess fluoride, most commonly in drinking-water, can
cause fluorosis which affects the teeth and bones. Moderate amounts lead to
dental effects, but long-term ingestion of large amounts can lead to potentially
severe skeletal problems.
47) Which of the following is considered to be the optimum concentration of
carbon dioxide for natural balance in atmosphere?
(a) 0.02 %
(b) 0.03%
(c) 0.04%
(d) 0.05%
Answer- C
Explanation- 0.04% is considered to be the optimum concentration of carbon
dioxide for natural balance in atmosphere.
48) Amount of rain depends on :
(a) Air pressure
(b) Humidity in atmosphere
(c) Water cycle
(d) Temperature
Answer- B
Explanation: Amount of rain depends on Humidity in atmosphere. Temperature
effects the moisture carrying capacity of air.
49) Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) World Environment day – 5th June
(b) Earth day – 22nd April
(c) Anti – tobacco day – 5th May
(d) Ozone day – 16th September
Answer -C
Explanation: Every year, on 31st May, WHO and partners mark World No Tobacco Day
(WNTD), highlighting the health and other risks associated with tobacco use, and
advocating for effective policies to reduce tobacco consumption.
50) Biodiversity has maximum danger from
(a) Destruction of natural habitats and vegetation
(b) Improper agricultural operations
(c) Climate change
(d) Water pollution
Answer- *
Explanation: There are various threats to the biodiversity. Some of them are:
• Destruction of Habitats
• Overexploitation
• Pollution
• Climate Change
• Introduction of invasive species
51) Which of the following are the primary causes of climate change?
1. Excessive burning of fossil fuels
2. Exploding numbers of automobiles driven by oil
3. Increasing solar flares
4. Heavy deforestation
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4 only
Answer -B
Explanation: Solar irradiance variation has been a main driver of climate change
over the billion years of geologic time, but its role in the recent warming has
been found to be insignificant. The primary cause of climate change is the
burning of fossil fuels, such as oil and coal, which emits greenhouse gases into
the atmosphere—primarily carbon dioxide. Other human activities, such as
agriculture and deforestation, also contribute to the proliferation of
greenhouse gases that cause climate change.
52) Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
Nitrogen fixing agent – Crop
(a) Blue green algae – Paddy
(b) Rhizobium Leguminisarum – Pea
(c) Azotobacter – Wheat
(d) Azolla – Maize
Answer-D
Explanation: Azolla is a genus of seven species of aquatic ferns. Azolla is a
floating pteridophyte, which contains as endosymbiont the nitrogen-fixing
cyanobacterium Anabaena azollae (Nostocaceae family). Widely cultivated in the
Asian regions, Azolla is either incorporated into the soil before rice
transplanting or grown as a dual crop along with rice.
53) Which one of the following ecosystems has maximum plant bio-mass?
(a) Tropical deciduous forest
(b) Tropical rain forest
(c) Temperature deciduous forest
(d) Desert shrubs
Answer -B
Explanation: The biomass is the mass of living biological organisms in a given
area or ecosystem at a given time. Tropical rain forest ecosystem has maximum
plant bio-mass.
54) The Government of India enacted the Forest Conservation Act in the year :
(a) 1976
(b) 1980
(c) 1983
(d) 1988
Answer -B
Explanation: The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 an Act of the Parliament of
India to provide for the conservation of forests and for matters connected
therewith or ancillary or incidental thereto. It was further amended in 1988.
This law extends to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
55) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given
below the lists :
List – I | List II |
A. Tropical forest | 1. Sunderbans |
B. Conifer forest | 2. Himachal Pradesh |
C. Mangroves | 3. Rajasthan |
D. Deciduous forest | 4. Silent Valley |
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 4 2 1 3
Answer -D
Explanation:
Forest Type Location
Tropical forest Silent Valley
Conifer forest Himachal Pradesh
Mangroves Sunderbans
Deciduous forest Rajasthan
56) What is the quorum to constitute a meeting of Lok Sabha?
(a) One sixth of the total members of the House
(b) One tenth of the total members of the House
(c) One fourth of the total members of the House
(d) One third of the total members of the House
Answer: *
Explanation: From Article 100 in constitution States That Voting in Houses,
Power of Houses to act not withstanding vacancies and quorum . Quorum can be
defined as To Transact any business there should be 1/10th of the total members
of the house required to be present.
57) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given
below :
List I
A. Curtailment of the power judicial review
B. Abolition of Right to property as a fundamental right
C. Lowering the voting age from 21 to 18
D. Addition of the word secular in the preamble
List II
1. 61st Amendment
2. 42nd Amendment
3. 38th Amendment
4. 44th Amendment
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 1 3 2
Answer-C
Explanation:
Curtailment of the power judicial review - 38th Amendment
Abolition of Right to property as a fundamental right - 44th Amendment
Lowering the voting age from 21 to 18 - 61st Amendment
Addition of the word secular in the preamble - 42nd Amendment
58) Of the following political features, which is/are common to India and the
USA.
1. Residuary powers vested in the centre.
2. Residuary powers vested in the states.
3. President has the power of pocket veto.
4. The upper house has some nominated members.
(a) 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Answer -A
Explanation: If President Keeps Bill Pending (neither ratifies nor rejects nor
return) for the Indefinite period this power of President not to take any action
on Bill Known as Pocket Veto. As per Fourth Schedule of constitution of India,
there are 12 members nominated from art, literature, science.
59) The concept of ‘A Union of States in the Indian Constitution” has been
derived from :
(a) The American Declaration of Independence
(b) The Australian Constitution
(c) The British North – American Act
(d) The Swiss Constitution
Answer- B
Explanation: The concept of ‘A Union of States in the Indian Constitution” has
been derived from The Australian Constitution. Other features from Australian
constitution are Concurrent list, Freedom of trade, Joint sitting of two houses
of parliament.
60) Given below are two statements :
Assertion [A] : The scope of judicial review is limited in India.
Reason [R] : Indian constitution has some borrowed items.
Select the right answer from the code given below :
(a) Both [A] and [R] are correct and [R] is the right Explanationof [A]
(b) Both [A] and [R] are correct but [R] is not the correct Explanationof [A]
(c) [A] is correct, but [R] is wrong.
(d) [A] is wrong, but [R] is correct.
Answer
Explanation: Supreme Court Has been Vested with Power of judicial Review. •
Indian Constitution Borrowed the item Judicial Review from on Lines of US
Constitution. Other features from US constitution are Impeachment of the
president, function of president and vice-president, Independence of judiciary.
61) Who among the following was a member of Sarkaria Commission?
(a) V.Shankar
(b) K.Hanumanthaiah
(c) Dr. S.R.Sen
(d) O.V.Algesan
Answer : C
Explanation: To Review the existing arrangements between Union and the States in
the changed socio-economic scenario. The government on 9 May 1983 Constituted
Commission under the Chairmanship of Justice R.S. Sarkaria And Shri B. Sivaraman
and Dr S.R. Sen (Member).
62) Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code
given below :
List I [States]
A. Gujarat
B. Karnataka
C. Kerala
D. Odisha
List II [ No. of members in Rajyasabha]
1. 9
2. 11
3. 12
4. 10
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 1 2 3 4
Answer: C
Explanation:
Gujarat - 11
Karnataka - 12
Kerala - 9
Odisha – 10
63) Given below are two statements :
Assertion [A] : Model code of conduct is to be followed by political parties as
soon as an election is announced.
Reason [R] : Mode code of conduct was enacted by Parliament.
Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
Codes :
(a) Both [A] and [R] are correct and [R] is the correct Explanationof [A]
(b) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct Explanationof [A]
(c) [A] is true, but [R] is false.
(d) [A] is false, but [R] is true.
Answer
Explanation: The model code of conduct is to be followed by political parties
as soon as an election is announced. Model Code of conduct (MCC) was Enacted by
Election Commission of India.
64) In which year was Rajya Sabha constituted for the first time?
(a) 1950
(b) 1951
(c) 1952
(d) 1953
Answer: C
Explanation: Rajya Sabha First Constituted on 3rd April 1952 and meet for the
first time on 13th May 1952. Dr S. Radhakrishnan was the First Chairman of Rajya
Sabha.
65) Who among the following is empowered to establish the inter state council?
(a) Parliament
(b) President
(c) Speaker of Loksabha
(d) Prime Minister
Answer: B
Explanation: President is empowered to form Inter State Council. From the
Article 263 of Constitution, the Inter-State Council is not a permanent
constitutional body
66) Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Policy cut Motion – Budget demand be reduced to Rs.one
(b) Economy cut motion – Budget demand be reduced by a specified amount.
(c) Token cut Motion – Budget demand be reduced by rupees one hundred
(d) Vote on Account – Parliamentary sanction of all budgetary demands for grants
in a financial year.
Answer: D
Explanation: The Vote on Account is the special provision given to the government
to obtain the vote of Parliament to withdraw money for the new financial year
Until a full budget is passed. It stays valid for two months but it can be
extended if the year is election year.
67) Which of the following are enshrined in the third schedule of the Indian
Constitution?
1. Form of oath of office for a Minister for the Union.
2. Form of oath to be made by the Chief Justice of Supreme Court.
3. Form of oath of office for the President of India.
4. Form of oath to be made by a Member of Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Codes :
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 2, 3, 4
(c) 1,2,4
(d) 1,2,3,4
Answer:
Explanation: Third Schedule of Constitution Includes Oaths and Affirmation of
Judges of SC, HC & CAG, Candidate contesting in Election of Parliament Members
of Parliament, Members of Parliament & Union Cabinet Minister
68) Who is generally appointed as a Protem Speaker?
(a) The speaker of the outgoing Loksabha
(b) The Dy.Speaker of the outgoing Loksabha
(c) One of the senior most members of the newly elected Loksabha
(d) The leader of the opposition party in the outgoing Loksabha
Answer
Explanation: Protem Speaker as Provided Under the Constitution is One of the
senior most Member of newly elected Lok Sabha. And President Approves the
Appointment of Protem Speaker • But Recent Supreme Court Judgement stated that
Choosing Senior most Member is Convention Rather than Law.
69) What is meant by a Bullock – Capitalist?
(a) Farmers who are poor
(b) Farmers who are rich
(c) Farmers who have some resources but are not rich
(d) Farmers who are big Zamindars
Answer :B
Explanation: Bullock Capitalist is termed by Lloyd and Susanne Rudolph. It can
be Defined as farmers who are Self Employed & Self-funded Producers with Holding
large enough to support to buy Pair of Bullocks.
70) Which one of the following does not fall within the purview of Article 21 of
the Constitution?
(a) Medical aid to injured by a doctor
(b) Sexual Harassment of Women at work place
(c) Pollution of the quality of water
(d) Capital punishment
Answer: d
Explanation: According to article 21 Protection of Life and Personal Liberty, no
person shall be deprived of his/her Life except procedure Established by law,
right against sexual harassment at workplace, right to reputation, right to
livelihood, right to social security and protection of family, right to health,
right to medical care, right to clean environment etc.
71) Which one of the following is not a feature of a zonal council?
(a) It is a constitutional body
(b) Five Zonal Councils have set up under the States Reorganization Act, 1956
(c) Chandigarh although not a state is included in Zonal Council
(d) It is an Advisory body
Answer : a
Explanation: Zonal Councils are Advisory and Unconstitutional Body. Five Zonal
Council have set up Under States Reorganization Act, 1956 . Chandigarh is
Included under Northern Zonal Council.
72) Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer by using the
codes given below :
Assertion [A] : India is a democratic country.
Reason [R] : India has a constitution of its own
Codes :
(a) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct Explanationof [A]
(b) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct Explanationof [A]
(c) [A] is true but [R] is false
(d) Both [A] and [R] are false
Answer : b
Explanation: India is the World’s Largest Democracy. All decision of governance
is taken by elected as representative of people. Apart from that it is world’s
lengthiest written constitution with 22 Parts and 12 schedules.
73) Which one of the following is not a collective privilege of the members of
Parliament?
(a) Freedom of debates and proceedings
(b) The Right to regulate the internal matters of the Parliament
(c) Freedom from attendance as Witness
(d) The privilege of excluding strangers from the house
Answer :c
Explanation: Privileges of Member of Parliament are Freedom Of speech, Freedom
from Arrest, Exemption from Attendance as Jurors and Witnesses, right to
regulate the internal matters of the Parliament & The privilege of excluding
strangers from the house.
74) Consider the following statements and select your answer from the codes
given below :
1. The Governor does not have the power to appoint the judge of a State High
court.
2. He is not a part of the Legislature.
3. He has the power to nominate some members in the Legislative Council.
4. He has no judicial powers.
Codes :
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 2 an 4 are correct
(d) All are correct
Answer :b
Explanation: Judges of High Court are Appointed by President in consultation
with Chief Justice of India. Governor is the part of state legislature though he
has nominal power. Governor has the power to nominate 1/6th members of state
legislative councils from the person's recognized in some special fields such as
literature, arts, science, social services.
75) The name ‘Aghanya’ mentioned in many passages of the Rig Veda refers to :
(a) Priest
(b) Women
(c) Cows
(d) Brahmanas
Answer :c
Explanation: ‘Aghanya’ mentioned in many passages of the Rig Veda refers to Cow. Rigveda is ancient collection of Vedic Sanskrit hymn (1028 Hymns) with about
10600 verses organized in ten books.
76) In which of the following rock-cut caves eleven headed Bodhisattva image is
depicted?
(a) Ajanta
(b) Ellora
(c) Kanheri
(d) Karle
Answer : c
Explanation: The Kanheri Caves comprises of a large basaltic rock .109 caves
have been cut, dating from the First century to the tenth century. The word
Kanheri comes from Sanskrit Word Krishnagiri, meaning “black mountain. Precious
Monument to Buddhist Civilization.
77) Consider the following statements :
1. The early chaityagrihas and viharas of Guntuphalli in West Godavari district
are rock cut.
2. The chaityas and viharas of Eastern deccan are usually rock cut.
Of these statements :
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer :c
Explanation: Guntupalli Group of Buddhist Monuments is located near
Kamavarapukota in West Godavari district of Andhra Pradesh state. The site has
two Buddhist caves, two vihara made up of brick, chaitya and a group of stupas.
Guntupalle is popularly known as "Andhra Ajanta". These caves are believed to
pre-date even the world famous Ajanta & Ellora caves of Maharashtra. It is also
believed that the great Buddhist Logician, Dignaga resided here for quiet
sometime during his lifetime.
78) A resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha under Article 249 of the constitution
empowering Parliament to legislate on a state subject in national interest
remains in force for a period.
(a) Not exceeding six months
(b) Not exceeding two years
(c) Not exceeding one year
(d) of unlimited time
Answer :c
Explanation: Resolution under article 249 Must be Supported by two-third of
members Present and voting. It can be renewed at any time but not exceeding one
year at a time.
79) Which among the following system of levying land revenue in Deccan was
prevalent during the reign of Akbar?
(a) Kankut
(b) Number of ploughs
(c) Zabt
(d) Ghallabakshi
Answer :c
Explanation: Zabt levying land revenue in Deccan was prevalent during the reign
of Akbar (1556-1605) .This Revenue System Applied in northern India, Malwa and
Parts of Gujarat.
80) Who among the following foreign travellers visited India during the reign of
Jahangir?
(a) Father Anthony Monserate
(b) Francisco Pelsaert
(c) Niccolo Manucci
(d) Francois Bernier
Answer :b
Explanation: Francisco Pelsaert was a Dutch From Dutch East India Company To be
First foreign travellers visited India during the reign of Jahangir. Period of
travel (1620 -1627 AD)
81) Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the
codes given below the statements :
Assertion [A]: Generally India had a favourable balance of trade during the
British rule.
Reason [R]: The drain of wealth took the form of unrequited exports.
Codes
(a) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct Explanationof [A]
(b) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct Explanationof [A]
(c) [A] is true but [R] is false
(d) Both [A] and [R] are false
Answer :a
Explanation: Both statements are correct there is constant flow of wealth in
terms of raw material exported from India in return India get finished goods
this resulted in monopolistic control over Indian market. Dadabhai naoroji Put
forward “Drain of wealth Theory”. He mentioned this theory in his book Poverty
and Un-British rule in India. And stated as Main reason of poverty in India
under colonial era.
82) Who was the last ruler of ‘Jaunpur state’?
(a) Mohammed Shah
(b) Hussain Shah
(c) Mubarak Shah
(d) Ibrahim Shah
Answer: b
Explanation: Hussain Shah was the Last Ruler of jaunpur sultanate Signed Four
Year Peace Treaty with Bahlol Lodi 1458 . He ruled from 1458 – 1479.
83) Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Hector Munro – Battle of Buxar
(b) Lord Hastings – Anglo – Nepal War
(c) Lord Wellesley – Fourth Anglo Mysore War
(d) Lord Cornwallis – Third Anglo – Maratha War
Answer : d
Explanation: Third Anglo – Maratha War Fought under Governor General Francis Rawdon Hasting (1816 – 1818). Governor General Francis Rawdon Hasting installed
british supremacy after devastation of marathas in 1818.
84) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given
below :
List I [Tirthankara]
1. Adinatha
B.Mallinatha
1. Sambhavnatha
List II [Cognizance]
1. Bull
2. Horse
3. Snake
4. Water Jar
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 3 1 4 2
Answer : a
Explanation:
• Adinatha - Bull
• Mallinatha – Water Jar
• Parsavnatha – Snake
• Sambhavnatha – Horse
85) Which one of the following is not true about the Barabar hill caves?
(a) There are in all four caves on the Barabar hill
(b) Inscriptions of Ashoka are found on the walls of three caves
(c) These inscriptions inform us about the dedication of these caves to the
Ajivikas
(d) These inscriptions date back to 6th century BC.
Answer :d
Explanation: Barabar Hill Caves are the oldest rock cut caves Dating with
Mauryan Empire (322-185 BCE) With some Ashokan Period Inscription. Caves Found
in Jehanabad District of Bihar.
86) Matsya Mahajanapada of 6th century B.C was located in :
(a) Western Uttar Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Bundelkhand
(d) Rohilkhand
Answer :b
Explanation: It Includes Region of Jaipur, Alwar & Bharatpur. The capital of
Matsya Was at viratanagar.
87) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given
below :
List I
1. Gandhar Art
B.Junagarh Rock inscription
1. Milinapanho
2. Taxila inscriptions
List II
1. Menander
2. Patika
3. Kushanas
4. Rudradaman I
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 1 3 4
Answer : c
Explanation: • Gandhar Art – Kushanas
• Junagarh Rock inscription - Rudradaman I
• Milinapanho – Menander
• Taxila inscriptions – Patika
88) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Revolt ----- Year
(a) Prabna revolt 1873
(b) Deccan Kisan revolt 1875
(c) Sanyasi revolt 1894
(d) Kol uprising 1870
Answer d
Explanation: • Kol Uprising 1832 • They are tribal inhabitants of Chota Nagpur,
Bengal Presidency during the British rule in India. • They comprised of the Kols,
Bhils, Mundas and Oraons.
89) Which one of the following social reformers strongly opposed Jury Act of
1826?
(a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(c) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(d) Rajnarayan Basu
Answer :b
Explanation: Raja Ram Mohan Roy social reformers strongly opposed Jury Act of
1826 on the Ground of Natives Hindus & Muslims Could Sit as Jurors in Trail of
Hindus and Muslims but are Prohibited to sit in cases which were of Christians.
Raja Ram Mohan Roy was Indian Socio-educational reformer also known as “Maker of
Modern India” or “Father of modern India or “Father of Indian nationalism”.
90) In which of the following places the Dutch established their trading centres
in India?
(a) Nagappattinam, Chinsura, Machilipatnam
(b) Surat, Bharuch, Agra
(c) Cochin, Ahmedabad, Patna
(d) All the above
Answer :d
Explanation: The Dutch established their trading center’s in India in Surat,
Bharuch, Agra, Coromandel (East Coast of India) and Malabar region (Southern
Part of the west coast).
91) Who among the following supported the Swaraj Party in Central Legislative
Assembly in pre-independent India?
(a) M.A.Jinnah
(b) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
(c) Dr.Rajendra Prasad
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer :A
Explanation: M. A. Jinnah & Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad supported the Swaraj Party
in Central Legislative Assembly in pre-independent India
92) In which year Gopal Krishna Gokhale founded ‘Servants of India Society’?
(a) 1902
(b) 1903
(c) 1904
(d) 1905
Answer :d
Explanation: Gopal Krishna Gokhale Senior Indian National Congress Leader
founded ‘Servants of India Society’ in the Year 1905 • One of the Main Causes to
Expansion of Indian Education.
93) In which of the following years the Jatiya Sarkar was formed in the Midnapur
district of Bengal?
(a) 1939
(b) 1940
(c) 1941
(d) 1942
Answer : d
Explanation: Rebels ran an independent government for 2 years, Known as the Tamluk Jatiya Sarkar, the Tamluk National Government in the Year 1942 • Located
at Western coast of Bengal Midanapore district.
94) Which of the following trials attracted world-wide publicity and drew
sympathetic comments from Albert Einstein, H.G.Wells, Harold Laski and Roosevelt
in favour of the convicts?
(a) INA trial
(b) Lahore conspiracy case
(c) Meerut conspiracy case
(d) None of the above
Answer : c
Explanation: Meerut conspiracy case is Court Case initiated in March 1929. •
Persons of communist Workers and Peasant Party and held its conference at Meerut.
Britisher’s raided and arrested persons connected with the Workers and Peasants
Party. • In all 32 persons were charged and 31 of them were arrested including
the two Britishers under False Lawsuit.
95) Who remarked about the East India Company that “The Company is an anomaly
but it is part of a system where everything is an anomaly”?
(a) Warren Hastings
(b) G.B.Macaulay
(c) Lord Clive
(d) Henry Dundas
Answer: b
Explanation: G. B. Macaulay remarked about the East India Company that “The
Company is an anomaly but it is part of a system where everything is an
anomaly”.
96) Which one of the following states has the lowest percentage of Scheduled
Tribes population as percentage of its total population according to Census
2011?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Kerala
Answer :a
Explanation: As per Census Data, Uttar Pradesh has the lowest proportion of
Scheduled Tribes (0.57) and Mizoram has the highest proportion of Scheduled
Tribes (94.43).
97) Which of the following is not a cold ocean current?
(a) Canaries
(b) Humboldt
(c) Oyashio
(d) Agulhas
Answer :d
Explanation: Agulhas are Western Boundary Current of the South west Indian
Ocean. • It Flows Down East Coast of Africa.
98) Which of the following is not correctly matched?
Mountain pass State
(a) Sipkila – Himachal Pradesh
(b) Bomdila – Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Nathula – Meghalaya
(d) Zojila – Jammu & Kashmir
Answer :c
Explanation: It is in Sikkim (Eastern Part) Sharing its Border with China Tibet
Autonomous Region. • It is Part of Ancient Silk Road.
99) Which of the following cities is known as the oil capital of Europe?
(a) Belfast
(b) Aberdeen
(c) Leeds
(d) Liverpool
Answer: b
Explanation: Aberdeen is known as the oil capital of Europe Found in The North
Sea. • Serving as Off shore Oil Rigs.
100) Which of the following groups of countries share border with Israel?
(a) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan, Egypt
(b) Egypt, Turkey, Jordan, Cyprus
(c) Lebanon, Syria, Turkey, Jordan
(d) Turkey, Syria, Iraq, Yemen
Answer: a
Explanation: It shares its Border with Northern side Lebanon, North Eastern
Border with Syria, Eastern Border with Jordan And South-Western border with
Egypt.
101) Which one amongst the following is the Largest plateau?
(a) Coconino
(b) Aquarius
(c) Colorado
(d) Columbia
Answer: c
Explanation: Colorado Plateau is the Largest Plateau in North America Covers
Around 337000 sq. km. • Colorado Plateau is Bisected by River Colorado and Grand
Canyon. • Found in Colorado, Utah, Arizona and New Mexico.
102) Arrange the following events in correct chronological sequence using the
code given below
1. Satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act
2. Champaran Satyagraha
3. Kheda Peasant struggle
4. Ahmedabad Mill Strike
Codes
(a) 2,4,3,1
(b) 1,2,3,4
(c) 2,1,4,3
(d) 3,2,4,1
Answer: a
Explanation: Satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act – 1919 - First Mass Satyagraha
Against the Unjust Rowlatt act curbing freedom of press the Pres (For the
First-Time Satyagraha word used in Anti Rowlatt act Agitation)
• Champaran Satyagraha – 19-April-1917 – To Remove Hardship of Indigo Farmers in
Champaran are Exploited Under Colonial era.
• Kheda Peasant struggle – 1918 - To demand relief for famine-stricken peasants
of Kheda regarding the revenue dues to be paid to the Government.
• Ahmedabad Mill Strike – March 1918 - To end the deadlock between the mill
owners and labourers who were overworked and under paid
103) Whose army was defeated by the army of Kakatiya rulers in 1303 at Warangal?
(a) of Iltutmish
(b) of Balban
(c) of Alauddin Khalji
(d) of Muhammad Tughlaq
Answer
Explanation: • Alauddin Khalji was Defeated by the Army of Kakatiya Rulers in
1303 at Warangal in The Battle of Upparapalli.
• Kakatiya Dynasty (1163 – 1323) was a south india dynasty whose capital was
Orugallu (Present Warangal).
104) India’s deepest port is :
(a) Kandla
(b) Cochin
(c) Paradip
(d) Marmagoa
Answer :c
Explanation: Paradip is the Deepest Port to Handle biggest Cargo Vessel. •
Kandla Port (Now Known as Deendayal Port) is located in Kutuch district of
Gujarat, Marmagoa Located in Goa & Paradip located in Odisha.
105) Which amongst the following is the largest glacier?
(a) Sasaini
(b) Gangotri
(c) Zemu
(d) Siachin
Answer :c
Explanation: Siachen Glacier is Largest Glacier Amongst all located in eastern
part of Karakoram range in the Himalayas. • Siachen Glacier Separates Eurasian
Plate from Indian Sub-continent.
106) Which of the following iron and Steel plants is not close to raw material
area?
(a) Jamshedpur
(b) Rourkela
(c) Durgapur
(d) Salem
Answer :d
Explanation: Salem Steel Plant (Unit of SAIL) Get its raw material such as Coal
from Dhanbad. • Jamshedpur Steel Plant obtains coal, iron ore, Limestone,
dolomite, chromite and magnesite from two collieries Jharia Group and west
bokaro group
107) Red sea is an example of :
(a) Volcanic valley
(b) Eroded valley
(c) Axial trough
(d) U-shaped valley
Answer :c
Explanation: The Red Sea is an Example of Axial Trough. • The Red Sea is spread
between two tectonic plates, the African plate and Arabian plate. • The crust
has a composition of presence of basaltic dykes.
108) The Tropic of cancer passes through which of the following states?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
1. Gujarat
2. Chattisgarh
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. Jharkhand
Codes :
(a) 1,2 and 4
(b) 1,2,3 and 4
(c) 1,3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Answer :a
Explanation: Tropic of cancer Pass through 8 Indian States • Gujarat, Rajasthan,
Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura & Mizoram. •
Tropic of cancer is also known as Northern tropic.
109) Identify the correct west to east sequence of the following Hilly Castes?
(a) Khasi – Garo – Naga – Jaintia
(b) Naga – Jaintiya – Khasi – Garo
(c) Garo – Khasi – Jaintia – Naga
(d) Jaintiya – Naga – Garo – Khasi
Answer :c
Explanation: Garo – Tibeto-Burman Ethnic Group Meghalaya, Assam, Tripura and
Nagaland • Khasi – Ethnic Group Meghalya and North Eastern India • Jaintia –
Tribe of Meghalya • Naga - Ethnic Group of Nagaland
110) Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. Idukki: Thermal Power Station
2. Sabarigiri: Hydroelectric project
3. Ghatprabha: Irrigation project
4. Ramganga: Multipurpose project
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
Answer: a
Explanation: Idukki - Hydroelectric project • Biggest Hydroelectric project in
Kerala • It comprises three dams at Idukki, Cheruthony and Kulamavu and related
systems.
111) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code
given below :
List I [Waterfall]
1. Dudhsagar
B.Duduma
1. Gokak
2. Jog
List II [River]
1. Ghatprabha
2. Machhkund
3. Sharavati
4. Mandavi
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 2 3 4 1
Answer : a
Explanation: Dudhsagar – Mandavi
• Duduma- Machhkund
• Gokak- Ghatprabha
• Jog- Sharavati
112) Which of the following rock systems provides over 90% of the coal of India?
(a) Vindhyan system
(b) Dharwar system
(c) Tertiary system
(d) Gondwana system
Answer :d
Explanation: Gondwana system provides over 90% of the coal of India • Gondwana
land is named after the Upper Paleozoic and Mesozoic formations of the Gondwana.
• The continents of Africa, South America, Australia and India were once part of
a, which is called "Gondwanaland".
113) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code
given below :
List I [Area]
1. Western Ghat
B.South-east Rajasthan
1. North-east India
2. Madhya Pradesh and Chattisgarh
List II [Shifting Cultivation]
1. Dahiya
2. Waltre
3. Jhum
4. Kumari
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 3 2 1 4
Answer: a
Explanation: Western Ghats- Kumari
• South-east Rajasthan- Waltre
• North-east India- Jhum
• Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh- Dahiya
114) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code
given below :
List I [Aluminium company]
1. Balco
B.Hindalco
1. Indian Aluminium company
2. NALCO
List II [Location]
1. Hirakud
2. Korba
3. Koraput
4. Renukut
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 1 4 3
Answer: b
Explanation: • Balco- Korba
• Hindalco- Renukut
• Indian Aluminum company- Hirakud
• NALCO- Koraput
115) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code
given below :
List I [City]
1. Khartoum
B.Brazzaville
1. Rotterdam
2. Paris
List II [River]
1. Zaire
2. Nile
3. Seine
4.Rhine
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
Answer: a
Explanation: • Khartoum- Nile
• Brazzaville- Zaire
• Rotterdam- Rhine
• Paris- Seine
116) Which of the following canals is used as an inland waterway in Southern
Germany?
(a) Volga-Don Canal
(b) Sault – Sainte Marie Canal
(c) Ludwigs Canal
(d) White Sea Canal
Answer: c
Explanation: • Ludwigs Canal is used as an inland waterway in Southern Germany •
It Connects Danube Basin with Rhine Basin.
117) Large coffee plantations in Brazil are called
(a) Estate
(b) Estancias
(c) Kalkhozes
(d) Fazendas
Answer: d
Explanation: • Large coffee plantations in Brazil are called Fazendas. During
the Colonial Period, they are concentrated in the North Eastern Region Of the
country.
118) Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Country Capital
(a) Guinea Bissau – Bissau
(b) Taiwan – Taipei
(c) Nicaragua – Managua
(d) Maldives – Malabo
Answer: d
Explanation: • The Maldives is located in the Indian Ocean and its capital is
Male.
• Malabo is the capital city of Equatorial Guinea.
• In 2017 Equatorial Guinea recent member country of OPEC (The Organization of
the Petroleum Exporting Countries.
119) In which of the following animals hooves are not found?
(a) Deer
(b) Jackal
(c) Zebra
(d) Horse
Answer : b
Explanation: • Jackal have Paw.
• Whereas Deer,Zebra,Horse and various other grazing animals have Hooves
120) The cause of sweet taste in fruits is :
(a) Maltose
(b) Ribose
(c) Lactose
(d) Fructose
Answer :d
Explanation: • Sweet taste in fruits is due to Fructose While Sour one contains
excessive acid. • Maltose is Component of malt found in acid thinned starch,
corn syrup, maltodextrin. Lactose is a sugar composed of galactose and glucose
and found in milk around (2 – 8 %).
121) Which one of the following is a natural polymer?
(a) Bakelite
(b) Silk
(c) Kevlar
(d) Lexan
Answer: b
Explanation: • Silk is Natural Protein fiber obtain from cocoons larvae of the
Mulberry Silkworm. • Kevlar is a heat resistant and strong synthetic fiber finds
its application in armor, personal protection etc. • Lexan is also polycarbonate
group of thermoplastic polymer finds its application in automotive, aircraft,
railway and security component.
122) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Hormone Function
(a) Insulin – Regulation of blood glucose
(b) Melatonin – Regulation of sleep
(c) Oxytocin – Release of milk from mammary glands
(d) Gastrin – Regulation of blood pressure
Answer d
Explanation: • Silk is Natural Protein fiber obtain from cocoons larvae of the
Mulberry Silkworm. • Kevlar is a heat resistant and strong synthetic fiber finds
its application in armor, personal protection etc. • Lexan is also polycarbonate
group of thermoplastic polymer finds its application in automotive, aircraft,
railway and security component.
123) Urea is
(a) A nitrogen containing organic compound
(b) A nitrogen containing in organic compound
(c) A plant harmone
(d) An Endergonic compound
Answer : a
Explanation: • Urea is a nitrogen-containing the organic compound. • Nitrogen
containing compounds have wide applications in our daily life. They form a part
of dyes, drugs, fertilizers, alkaloids, proteins. Etc.
124) Rani Jhansi maritime National Park was founded in :
(a) 1994
(b) 1995
(c) 1996
(d) 1997
Answer: c
Explanation: • Rani Jhansi maritime National Park was founded in 1996 located in
the Andaman district of Andaman and Nicobar Islands (Union territory). • The
total area of the park is 256.14 sq. km
125) The stench due to leakage from LPG cylinder is because of :
(a) Methane
(b) Propane
(c) Butane
(d) Ethyl mercaptan
Answer: d
Explanation: • Propane is Odorless in order to detect Leakage Ethyl mercaptan is
added. • LPG is Liquified through Process known as pressurisation comes from
Natural gas processing and oil refining.
126) Given below are two statements :
Assertion [A] : Human body is incapable of digesting cellulose.
Reason [R] : Starch degrading enzyme, diastase, is found in human body.
Choose the answer from the code given below :
Codes
(a) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct Explanationof [A]
(b) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct Explanationof [A]
(c) [A] is true but [R] is false
(d) Both [A] and [R] are false
Answer: b
Explanation: • Human Body does not have enzymes to digest Cellulose. • Diastase
is group of enzymes that catalyses the breakdown of starch into maltose. • It is
also known as Process of Digestion and other gastric function.
127) Which one of the following organs will not feel any pain on being pricked
by a needle?
(a) Skin
(b) Brain
(c) Heart
(d) Eye
Answer: b
Explanation: | • The brain does not feel any pain on being pricked by a needle
because there are no Touch Receptors in Brain. • Wheras Skin,Eye,Ear,Tongue and
nose are sensory organs.
128) Deficiency of Iodine causes :
(a) Night Blindness
(b) Cancer
(c) Goitre
(d) Osteoporosis
Answer: c
Explanation: • Deficiency of Iodine causes • Night Blindness is caused due to
deficiency of Vitamin A. • Osteoporosis is due to the reduction of bone density.
129) Which one of the following organic acids is abundant in grapes, tamarind
and banana?
(a) Acetic acid
(b) Citric acid
(c) Lactic acid
(d) Tartaric acid
Answer: d
Explanation: • Tartaric acid is abundant in grapes, tamarind and banana • Acetic
acid is found in vinegar (5% acetic acid and 95% water). • Citric acid is found
in tomatoes, Lemon etc.
130) Which of the following fuels would produce minimum environmental pollution?
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Diesel
(c) Kerosene
(d) Coal
Answer: a
Explanation: Hydrogen (H2) is an alternative fuel. • Hydrogen can be used as
widespread use in fuel cell electric vehicles and far less in emission
131) Which of the following has the largest brain in proportion to its body
size?
(a) Ant
(b) Elephant
(c) Dolphin
(d) Human Being
Answer: c
Explanation: • Dolphin has the highest body to brain ratio. • And also known to
be most smart creature among all animal kingdom.
132) An artificial satellite can be tracked very precisely from the earth by
using
(a) Doppler effect
(b) Radar
(c) Sonar
(d) Pulsar
Answer: a
Explanation: • The artificial satellite can be tracked very precisely from the
earth by using Doppler effect. • Doppler radar is a specialized radar that uses
Doppler effect
133) Five bulbs each of 100 watt capacity in a tunnel are illuminated
continuously for twenty hours. The consumption of electricity will be :
(a) One unit
(b) Two units
(c) Ten units
(d) Twenty units
Answer: c
Explanation: | • E = number of units x power of each unit x time • E=10000 Wh=10
KWh
134) If an unsaturated sugar solutionis prepared by mixing 100 grams of sugar
with half litre of water, which of the following physical quantities will not
change?
(a) mass
(b) density
(c) concentration
(d) volume
Answer: d
Explanation: Volume remains unchanged because sugar gets dissolved into it. The
molecules get further apart in the solvent, but they don't change.
135) A mobile phone charger is
(a) An inverter
(b) A UPS
(c) A step up transformer
(d) A step down transformer
Answer: d
Explanation: Mobile phone charger is A step down transformer which Provide low
voltage value which is suitable for electronics appliances.
136) The stones present in the gall bladder affect the digestion of :
(a) Protein
(b) Fat
(c) Carbohydrate
(d) Nucleic acid
Answer: b
Explanation: Stones present in the gall bladder affect the digestion of fat .
Gallstones occur when bile, which is normally fluid, forms stones in
gallbladder. Calcium deposits also form gallstone.
137) Which one of the following is not genetic disease?
(a) Night blindness
(b) Albinism
(c) Haemophilia
(d) Colour blindness
Answer: a
Explanation: Night blindness is vision impairment. People with night blindness
have poor vision at night. Night blindness is caused by Deficiency of Vitamin A.
Haemophilia is Inherited Genetic disorder That impairs body disability to make
blood clots and Colour blindness is Decreased ability to see colour or
difference between colour.
138) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Vitamin Role
(a) Vitamin B12 – antianaemic factor
(b) Vitamin C – antiscorbutic factor
(c) Vitamin D – antisterility factor
(d) Vitamin K – antihaemorrhagic factor
Answer: c
Explanation: Vitamin D - It helps the body absorb calcium, which then build
bones and keep bones strong and healthy. Vitamin K – Antisterility factor any or
all of the group of fat-soluble vitamins that consist of the tocopherols and are
essential for normal reproduction, muscle development, resistance of
erythrocytes to hemolysis, and various other biochemical functions.
139) Given below are two statements :
Assertion [A] : According to the World Health Organization [WHO] in 1993, there
were 16.5 million deaths due to infectious diseases world wide.
Reason [R] : Urbanisation without health planning leads to the spread of such
diseases.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(a) Both [A] and [R] are true and [R] is the correct Explanationof [A]
(b) Both [A] and [R] are true but [R] is not the correct Explanationof [A]
(c) [A] is true but [R] is false
(d) [A] is false but [R] are true
Answer: a
Explanation: • According to the World Health Organization [WHO] in 1993, there
were 16.5 million deaths due to infectious diseases worldwide Because they are
contagious in nature and is due to increasing Urbanization.
140) A cut diamond shines brilliantly due to
(a) some inherent property
(b) total internal reflection
(c) its molecular structure
(d) absorption of light
Answer: b
Explanation: • A cut diamond shines brilliantly due to total internal reflection
(TIR) • The refractive index of diamond with respect to air is 2.42 and Its
critical angle is 24.41degree.
141) Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code
given below :
List I [Product]
A. Opium
B. Hing
C. Rubber
D. Quinine
List II [Answer
Explanation]
1. Bark
2. Root
3. Fruit
4. Stem
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 4 2 1 3
(d) 2 4 3 1
Answer : b
Explanation: | • Opium- fruit
• Hing- Root
• Rubber- Stem
• Quinine- Bark
142) Television viewers using dish antenna to receive satellite signals do not
receive signals during rain because :
1. of small size of antenna.
2. rain droplets absorb the energy of radio waves.
3. rain droplets disperse the energy of radio waves from their original
direction.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer : d
Explanation: Television viewers using dish antenna to receive satellite signals
do not receive signals during rain because of small size of antenna, rain
droplets absorb the energy of radio waves, rain droplets disperse the energy of
radio waves from their original direction.
143) As per 2011 Census which one of the following states has recorded decrease
in population?
(a) Nagaland
(b) Manipur
(c) Tripura
(d) Sikkim
Answer :a
Explanation: As per 2011 census, Nagaland recorded the decrease (-0.58 Percent).
But Manipur, Tripura and Sikkim have shown significant increase in population
growth as per 2011 census.
144) Which bank has been established in China by BRICS countries?
(a) New Industrial Development Bank
(b) New Agricultural Development Bank
(c) New Development Bank
(d) New Commercial Bank
Answer :c
Explanation: BRICS Summit (2012) considered the possibility of setting up a New
Development Bank (NDB) .Headquarters at Shanghai (China) and its President is
K.V Kamath
145) Arrange the following schemes launched by Government of India in
chronological order and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
1. Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana
2. Atal Pension Yojana
3. III. Make in India
4. Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana
Codes :
(a) IV, III , II and I
(b) I, II, III and IV
(c) III, II, I and IV
(d) IV, I, II and III
Answer :a
Explanation: Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana Launched in 22 January 2015
Atal Pension Yojana Launched 9 May 2015
Make in India Launched 25 September 2014.
Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana 15 August 2014.
146) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana launched under Social Security Act 2008
covers :
(a) only organized sector workers
(b) only rural workers
(c) only unorganized sector workers
(d) all category of workers
Answer :c
Explanation: • Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana launched under Social Security
Act 2008 covers only unorganized sector workers . The beneficiary is any Below
Poverty Line (BPL) family, whose information is included in the district BPL .
The premium cost of beneficiaries under the scheme is shared by Government of
India and the State Governments. It is included under Twelfth Five Year Plan
(2012-17).
147) The target to reduce Infant Mortality Rate [IMR] during eleventh plan
period was kept at
(a) 27 per 1000 live birth
(b) 28 per 1000 live birth
(c) 29 per 1000 live birth
(d) 30 per 1000 live birth
Answer :b
Explanation: • Target to reduce Infant Mortality Rate [IMR] during the eleventh
plan period was kept at 28 per 1000 live birth . While in, Twelfth Five Year
Plan (2012-17) would require it to be reduced by 12% approximately every year
during the plan period.
148) Saksham project approved by Govt of India is related to
(a) Skill development of SC and ST population
(b) A military unit for effective disaster management
(c) A new indirect tax network
(d) Creating self confidence among ‘Divyang’ youth.
Answer :c
Explanation: ‘Project SAKSHAM’ a new Indirect tax Initiative by the Central
Board of Excise and Custom (CBEC). • It will Help in implementation of Goods and
Services Tax (GST), extension of the Indian Customs Single Window Interface for
Facilitating Trade (SWIFT).
149) The specific requirements of the ‘start-ups’ can be fulfilled through :
(a) Angel Investors
(b) Venture capital
(c) Crowd funding
(d) All the above
Answer :d
Explanation: Angel Investors/ Venture capital/ Crowdfunding/Private
Investor/seed Investor are the Provide capital for startup in exchange for
Ownership Equity. • For Young entrepreneur In 2016 Government of India Started
“Startup India” under Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
150) SEZ India mobile app has been launched in January 2017 by :
(a) Ministry of Labour and Employment.
(b) Ministry of Finance
(c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
(d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
Answer :c
Explanation: SEZ India mobile app has been launched by commerce secretary in
January 2017 by Ministry of Commerce and Industry • SEZ Units and Developers to
find information easily and track their transactions on SEZ Online System.